Exam Details

Subject home science
Paper paper 3
Exam / Course ugc net national eligibility test
Department
Organization university grants commission
Position
Exam Date June, 2014
City, State ,


Question Paper

1. BARS is a tool used for

Checking quality of food

Designing layout plan

Performance Appraisal

Feedback communication
2. Daily Zinc requirement of an adult man is

12 mg

8 mg

350 mg

600 mg
3. Infestation of which worm is responsible for the cause of anaemia is rural population

Round worm

Hook worm

Thread worm

Tape worm
4. Following is not a method of nutritional assessment using anthropometry.

Skin fold thickness

Waist circumference

Blood Pressure

Mid Upper Arm Circumference
5. The Hippo
campus is found in

The circulatory system

The human brain

Fossils

The preschool setting
6. Legal blindness is defined as visual acuity (vision) of or less in the better eye or with correction.

20/200

10/200

16/60

6/6
7. The term not used in traditional Japanese woven textile is

Maya

Shashiko

Sakiori

Zanshi
8. Which of the following amino acids is not present in silk

Glycine

Alanine

Cystine

Serine
9. The managerial and the psycho social subsystems are part of the

Household environment

Near environment

Large environment

Internal environment
10. Which of the following effort is involved in home making activities such as bending, leaning, kneeling and stooping

Muscular effort

Physical effort

Pedal effort

Torsal effort
11. Aristotle's Model of Communication is most appropriate in the context of

Personal Communication

Public Speech

Interpersonal Communication

Personal Letters
12. 8th March is celebrated as the

International Environment Day

International Sanitation Day

International Women's Day

International Energy Day
13. Following are non-conventional novel foods developed for nutrition security
I Leaf Protein Concentrate I
I Fermented foods II
I Spirulina I
V Textured Soy Protein
V Amylase Rich Food Codes

II, V&I

II, III&IV

IV, III&II

III&IV
14. The requirements of following nutrients are increased during lactation
I Protein I
I Vitamin A II
I Iron I
V Folic acid Codes

II&IV

II&III

III&IV

All of the above
15. Which of the following methods of cooking food use moist heat
I Poaching I
I Broiling II
I Sauteing I
V Stewing
V Braising Codes

II, IV

III, IV

IV, V

II, III
16. Following are essential amino acids
I Tryptophan I
I Valine II
I Lysine I
V Leucine
V Serine V
I Alanine Codes

II, III, IV

III, IV, V

IV, II, I

III, IV, VI
17. Which of the following foods are rich source of omega-3 fatty acid
I Walnuts I
I Fish II
I Butter I
V Egg Codes

I&II

II&IV

III&IV

I&III
18. Components of the National Anaemia Programme are

promotion of regular consumption of iron rich foods.
providing 60 mg iron and 500 mg folic acid for 100 days to a pregnant woman.
identification and treatment of severely anaemic women.
providing 300 kcal as supplementary nutrition to children 1-6 yrs.
Improve the nutrition and health status of adolescent girls. Codes

and

and

and

and
19. In the Apgar Scale for assessing a new born baby, a score of 2 is given for

100 to 140 beats per minute heart rate.

Low reflexive response.

Strong breathing and crying.

Body pink and extremities pink. Codes

Codes








20. Which of the following laws can a child be adopted under

PNDT
CARA
HAMA
GAWA
JJA
Codes

and

and

and

and
21. HDI is calculated using

Educational attainment

Life expectancy

Sex ratio

Real GDP Codes
Codes









22. Which of the following fibres are obtained from the leaf
I Kapok I
I Sisal II
I Abaca I
V Ramie

Codes

I II are correct

II III are correct

III IV are correct

I IV are correct

23. E-commerce is an emerging field in the apparel sector due to

I. Increase in technology.
II. Global network.
III. Government policies.
IV. Economic effectivity and feasibility
Codes

I and II are correct.

II and III are correct.

III and IV are correct.

All of the above are correct.
24. The most popularly used textiles in olden times in Egypt 2500 BC was
I Jute I
I Wool II
I Linen I
V Cotton Codes

I and IV

III and II

III and IV

I and III
25. The sources of real direct income are
I Services of family members.
II Services of Servant maid.
III Library facilities.
VI Services of Medical facilities.

Codes

II and IV

II&III

II and III

I and III
26. The four basic rights available to a consumer are
I. The right to safety.
II. The right to information.
III. The right for protection
IV. The right to choose
V. The right to be heard
Codes

I,III,IVandV

I,II,IVandV

II, III and V

II, III and IV
27. The laws of mechanics that apply to body movement and segment are
I. Gravitational force.
II. Arm position.
III. Momentum
IV. Work height
V. Leverage

Codes

III and V

III, IV and V

II and IV

II, III and V
28. Participatory communication can be ensured, through the use of following

I. Community Radio
II. Participatory Video
III. Street Theatre
IV. Public Speeches

CODES:

II, III and IV are correct.

II and III are correct.

II and IV are correct.

I and II are correct.
29. Marshall McLuhan proposed these concepts of mass communication

I. Communicator is the king.
II. Medium is the message.
III. World is a global village.
IV. Dominant technology shapes
the culture.
Codes

II and III are correct.

II, III and IV are correct.

III and IV are correct.

II and IV are correct.
30. Three distinct areas involved in nonverbal communication are

I. Aesthetics
II. Kinesics
III. Proxemics
IV. Para-language
Codes

II and III are correct.

II, III and IV are correct.

III and IV are correct.

II and IV are correct.
31.

Assertion Holding temperatures of foods must be carefully watched to prevent them from coming within the danger zones of 10 °C to 62 °C.

Reason Higher holding temperatures than necessary, are not advisable because they affect the quality of food.
Codes

is false, but is true.

is true, but is false.

and are true and is the correct explanation of

and are true, but is not the complete correct explanation of
32.
Assertion Patient with liver disorders is recommended emulsified fat in the diet.

Reason Bile is needed for emulsification of ingested fat in the duodenum.
Codes

is correct and is partially correct.

is correct and is completely correct.

is correct, but is incorrect.

is incorrect, but is correct.
33.

Assertion Carbohydrates should be given as complex starches, rather than simple sugar in Type II diabetes.

Reason Soluble fibre presents in Oats, barley, fruits and legumes has been shown to lower fasting blood sugar glycosuria.

Codes

is wrong and is right.

is right and is wrong.

is right and is partially correct explanation.

is right and is completely correct explanation.
34.

Assertion Ascorbic acid and iron in the meal should be in 2 1 ratio.

Reason Desirable level of ascorbic acid in a meal improves iron absorption among Indians on a vegetarian diet.
Codes

is wrong and is right.

is right and is wrong.

is right and is partially correct explanation.

is right and is completely correct explanation.
35.

Assertion 24 hrs. recall is the most widely used method in diet survey in developing countries.

Reason 24 hrs. recall gives good results in population where literacy level is low and there is not much variation in day to day intake.
Codes

is correct, but is not correct explanation.

is correct and is incorrect.

is correct and is correct explanation.

is incorrect and is correct.
36.
Assertion Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) is one of the leading causes of death of children under the age of 1 year of age.

Reason Children in developing countries sleep with their parent in the same room and this leads to suffocation.
Codes

Both and are correct.

is correct and is wrong.

is correct and is wrong.

Both and are wrong.
37.

Assertion Child labour is a gross violation of a child's right to development.

Reason Children who work in factories are unable to attend school, are exploited physically and paid low wages.
Codes

Both and are correct.

is correct and is wrong.

is correct and is wrong.

Both and are wrong.
38.
Assertion An experimental design permits inferences about cause and effect.

Reason By manipulating the independent variable, the researcher determines the effect, it has, on the dependent variable.

Codes

Both and are wrong.

is correct and is wrong.

is correct and is wrong.

Both and are correct.
39.

Assertion Disperse dyes are dispersed in dye bath.

Reason Their application may be done by use of carriers like phenols.
Codes

Both are true.

Both are false.

is true, but is false.

is false, but is true.
40.

Assertion It is possible to produce fabrics with self cleaning properties.

Reason Growth of Nano technology has made it possible.
Codes

Both and are true.

Both and are false.

is true, but is false.

is false, but is true.
41.

Assertion Pattern Engineering decreases the marker efficiency and it also adversely affects the style, fit or appearance of the product.

Reason Pattern engineering involves splitting pattern pieces, reducing seam allowances and adjusting pattern dimensions.
Codes

Both are false.

Both are true.

is true, but is false.

is false, but is true.
42.

Assertion Ergonomics is a study concerned with relationships among man, machine and the work environment.

Reason The efficiency of the work is a result of a triangulated inter-relationships and inter-dependence between the worker and the equipment used in a given work place.
Codes

is wrong, but is correct.

is correct, but is wrong.

Both and are correct.

Both and are wrong.
43.

Assertion During continued muscular activity, the glycogen breaks down in the presence of oxygen (within the body muscles) and releases energy along with the metabolites lactic acid, CO2, heat and moisture.

Reason During continued
muscular activity the O2 restricts the release of energy after some time as body muscles are involved in managing the metabolites.
Codes

is true and is false.

is wrong and is true.

Both and are false.

Both and are true.
44.

Assertion Micro-credit is an important mechanism for economic empowerment of women.

Reason Self Help Groups use Micro credit for promoting entrepreneurship.
Codes

is true and is false.

is false and is true.

Both and are true, but is not the correct reason for it.

Both and are true, but is the right reason for it.

45.

Assertion Ethos, Logos and Pathos are three major elements of Human Communication.

Reason Credibility of the communication increases the effectiveness of the process of communication.
Codes

Both and are correct and is the correct reason for

Both and are correct, but is not the correct reason for

is true and is false.

Both and are false.
46. Starch when subjected to moist heat, undergoes certain changes. Arrange these changes in the correct sequence.

I. Gelatinization
II. Retro gradation
III. Gelation
IV. Syneresis

Codes

III, IV, II

III, II, IV

II, III, IV

III, IV, II
47. Arrange the following steps of bread making in the correct sequence

I. Keep dough for proofing.
II. Add yeast and sugar to luke
warm water.
III. Sieve refined flour and salt.
IV. Bake at 450 °F in bread mould.
V. Knock back dough.

Codes

III, II, IV, V

III, IV, II

III, II, IV

III, II, IV, I
48. Arrange the sequence of symptoms of Vitamin A deficiency

a. Blindness
b. Xerosis of conjuctiva
c. Xerosis of cornea
d. Night Blindness
e. Bitot spot

Codes

e

a

d

a

49. HACCP is a preventive programme for hygienic control and food safety. Arrange the following steps of the HACCP system in their correct sequence

I. Identifying critical control points.
II. Monitoring each critical control point.
III. Developing criteria for control and prevention
IV. Identification and assessment of hazards.
V Taking immediate corrective action.
Codes

III, II, IV

IV, III, II, V

III, II, IV, V

IV, III, II, V

50. Arrange the steps of the employment process in the correct sequence

I. Selection
II. Interview
III. Reference check
IV. Test
V. Advertising
Codes

II, IV, III, V

IV, II, III

II, III, IV, I

II, IV, III, I
51. Arrange according to stages of development

a. Implantation
b. Blastocyst formation
c. Fertilization
d. Period of the fetus
e. Period of the embryo

Codes

e

d

e

d
52. Arrange in order of developmental attainment

a. Ties shoe laces.
b. Copies simple letters and shapes.
c. Fastens and unfastens big buttons.
d. Puts on and remove Pajamas.

Codes

d

a

a

a
53. What is the sequence in the Mechanism of dyeing

a. Absorption
b. Exhaustion of dye
c. Adsorption
d. Dissaggregation of dye in dye bath.

Codes

a

a

a

d

54. Give the correct sequence of Kharek Embroidery of Kutch

a. Filling in spaces with bands of stain stitch from front.
b. Outline of black squares.
c. Filling entire fabric.
d. Counting on warp and weft of the cloth.
e. Imagining the design.

Codes

e

c

a

c
55. Arrange the following steps required in executing a process chart technique for task analysis

I. Select the task.
II. Break the operation of the task
into sub operations.
III. Prepare the sheet for process analysis.
IV. Analyse the observations made.
V. Observe the task in execution.
VI. Discuss the suggestions with the worker for repeated tasks.
VII. Give suggestions for improvement
Codes

III, II, IV, VI, VII

II, III, IV, VI, VII

II, III, IV, VI, VII

II, III, IV, VI, VII

56. Arrange in correct sequence the steps to be adopted for preparing a time and activity schedule

I. Enlisting all the tasks performed in a day.
II. Estimate time spent for each task.
III. Classify tasks as flexible and inflexible.
IV. Determine the sequential order.
V. Analyse the schedule.
VI. Include meta plans for any extra time.
VII. Prepare the final time and activity plan.

Codes

III, II, IV, VI, VII

III, II, IV, VI, VII

IV, III, II, VI, VII

III, II, VI, IV, VII

57. Arrange the following stages of acquisition of skills as given by Seymour
I. Learning the sequence of activities.
II. Using information more efficiently.
III. Structuring sensory-motor patterns.
IV. Determining the sensory channel for each item of activity.
V. Attaining the right set in the sensory channel.
VI. Diminishing conscious attention

Codes

III, IV, II, VI

IV, II, VI, III

IV, II, III, VI

IV, II, III, VI
58. The steps in developing a programme for extension work includes the following sequence
a. setting up the objectives.
b. determining the important needs and interests of people.
c. identifying local leaders.
d. studying the situation.
e. setting up a planning committee.
f. developing a system to prioritize problems.

Codes

a and f

f and a

e and f

b and a

59. Arrange the following development programmes according to their year of inception in descending order

a. Community Development Programme.
b. Integrated Child Development Services.
c. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme.
d. National Rural Health Mission.

Codes

and d

d and c

b and a

d and a
60. Arrange the following phases of diffusion of innovation model of adoption of technology in sequential order.
a. Decision
b. Confirmation
c. Persuasion
d. Knowledge

Codes

b and a

a and b

a and c

c and d
61. Match fats oils given in List-I with fatty acids given in List-I
I List-I (Fat and Oil) List-II (Fatty acid)
a. Ghee i. ALA
b. Mustard ii. LA
c. Safflower iii. MUFA
d. Flaxseed iv. SFA
v. TFA

Codes
a b c d

iv iii ii i

v iii i ii

iv i iii ii

iv v iii

62. Match the deficiency diseases from List-I with their symptoms in List-II

a. Xerophthalmia i. Glossitis
b. Beri Beri ii. Koilonychia
c. Ariboflavinosis iii. Bow legs
d. Pellagra iv. Keratomalacia
e. Anaemia v. Petechial haemorrhages
f. Rickets vi. Diarrhoea and Dementia
g. Scurvy vii. Neuropathy

Codes
a b c d e f g

i ii iii iv v vi vii

ii iv vii v iii i vi

iv v vii vi iii i ii

iv vii i viii iii v

63. Match the Lipid Risk factors for CVD in List-I with their serum cut off values in List-II

List-I List-II
a. Total cholesterol i. 150 mg/dl
b. LDL cholesterol ii. 200 mg/dl
c. HDL cholesterol iii. 130 mg/dl
d. Triglycerides iv. 40 mg/dl
v. 240 mg/dl
Codes
a b c d
v ii iv iii

ii iii iv i

i ii iv v

v iii iv i

64. Match the following equipment in List-I with areas in food service units in List-I
I List-I (Equipment) List-II (Food Service Units)
a. Incinerator i. Dish washing Area
b. Weighing balance ii. Waste Management
c. Bain Marie iii. Food preparation
d. Rotisseri iv. Store Room
e. Plate rack v. Food Service
vi. Quality control
Codes
a b c d e

ii v iii iv i

iii iv v i ii

ii iv v iii i

iii v iv ii i
65. Match work given in List-II with agency given in List-I

List-I(Agency) List-II (Work)
a. NNMB i. Socio-economic survey
b. ICDS ii. Periodic diet and nutrition survey
c. NSSO iii. Keep data on state level data on Child health
d. NFHS iv. Keep data on prevalence of malnutrition in children
v. Keep population statistics and trends.
Codes
a b c d

iii i iv ii

iv iii i ii

i ii iii iv

ii iv i iii
66. Match the names in List-I with concepts in List-II

List-I List-II
a. John Locke i. Noble Savage
b. Rousseau ii. Tabula Rasa
c. Vygotsky iii.Id
d. Peaget iv. Scaffolding
e. Freud v. Assimilation
Codes
a b c d e
i ii iv v iii

ii i v iii iv

i iv v iii ii

ii i iv v iii
67. Match the psychometric tests in List-I with the age groups they are appropriate for in List-I
I List-I List-II
a. NBAS i. Adults
b. BSID ii. Neonates
c. TAT iii. Preschools
d. WPPSI iv. Infants
e. Aminocentesis v. Foetus

Codes
a b c d e

v iv iii i ii

ii iv i iii v

ii iii i iv v

iii ii i iv v
68. Match the units with given in List-I with their Quality Standards given in List-I
I List-I List-II
a. Denier i. Mass in grams of 1000 metres.
b. Tex ii. Fineness of fibre of 560 yds per pound.
c. Worsted count iii. Fineness of fibre of 840 yds per pound.
d. Cotton cotton iv. Mass in grams of 9000 metres.
v. Mass in grams of 840 metres.
vi. Fineness of fibre of 9000 yds per pound
Codes
a b c d

i iii v vi

ii iii iv v

vi i ii v

iv i ii iii
69. Match the fabrics given in List-I with their places of origin given in List-II

List-I List-II
a. Ikat i. Himachal
b. Shibori ii. Orissa
c. Pochampalli iii. Japan
d. Bhandhni iv. Andhra
v. Rajasthan
Codes
a b c d

iv ii i iii

ii iii iv v

iii i ii iv

v iv iii ii
70. Match the methods of dyeing given in List-I with their explanation given in List-I
I List-I List-II
a. Union dyeing i. Perforated spools containing yarns are dyed.
b. Cross dyeing ii. Textile material is constantly fed in the dye range.
c. Batch dyeing iii. Exhaust dyeing
d. Package dyeing iv. 2 or more fiber types are dyed in the same dye bath in the same shade.
v. Dyeing blends in the same dye bath with two or more shades.
codes:

iv v iii i

i ii iv iii

ii i v iv

iii iv ii v
71. Match the following symbols used in process chart with the event

<img src='./qimages/2110-9.jpg'><br><br>

Codes
a b c d e f g
vii viii ii iv v i vi

vii iv viii ix v i vi

vii ii iv v i viii v

vi viii ii iv v i vii

72. Match the following consumer programmes/legislations with year of instituting

List-I Programmes/ Legislations List-II Year
a. Environmental Protection Act i. 1969
b. MRTP ii. 1986
c. PFA iii. 1952
d. Textile Regulation Act iv. 1976
e. ISI Certification Mark Act v. 1954
f. Air Pollution Act vi. 1988
vii. 1981
viii. 1958
codes:

ii viii vii vi iii i

iii i v ii vii iv

ii i v vi iii vii

ii i iv vi iii vii
73. Match the News agencies in List-I with the country of its origin given in List-I

List-I List-II
a. Reuters i. United States of America
b. AP ii. Britain
c. UNI iii. France
d. AFP iv. India v. Brazil
codes:

i ii iii iv

ii i iv iii

ii iii iv v

ii iiv v
74. Match the Folk dance form, from List-I with the state of their origin from List-I

List-I List-II
a. Giddha i. Gujarat
b. Lavani ii. Punjab
c. Dandiya iii. Maharashtra
d. Raslila iv. Uttar Pradesh
v. Bihar
codes:

ii iii i iv

ii iii i v

v i iii ii

ii iii iv v
75. Match the elements of communication given in List-I with the problem related to them in List-II
List-I List-II
a. Message i. Simplicity of the concept
b. Communicator ii. Problem of Homogeneity
c. Receiver iii. Standard of Social Responsibility
d. Channel iv. Appropriateness to the content
v. Entropy
codes:
i iii ii iv

iv iii v

iv iii ii v

v iii i iii


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