Exam Details

Subject biotechnology
Paper
Exam / Course ph d
Department
Organization central university
Position
Exam Date 2013
City, State telangana, hyderabad


Question Paper

l. Palmitic, stearic and oleic acid methyl esters dissolved in n-Hexane can be separated by
A). Gas chromatography
B). Affinity column chromatography
C). Sucrose density gradient centifugation
D). Ion exchange chromatography

A nucieic acid sample containing DNA, t-RNA, mRNA and DNA-RNA hybrid
was incubated with RNase H. which of the following nucleic acids would remain intact in the sample after beafonent? DliA, tPlJA, DI{A-RI.{A h;,brid B). mRNA, tRNA, DNA-RNA hybrid C). DNA, tRNA and mRNA D). DNA-RNA hybrid, mRNA and DNA
which one ofthe following amino acid is coded by a single codon A). Tryptophan B). Serine C). Threonine D). Tyrosine
-used
0 The most widely penicillin-selection method for isolating auxotrophic
mutants is a kind of ... ... .. selection.
A). Negative
B). Positive
C). Neutal
D). Natural

Which one of the following molecule involved in photosynthetic electron transport is a protein A). Plastoquinone A B). Plastocyanin c). PQH2 D). P680
The exocyclic amino soup on c6 of adenine in a A:T base pair is a A). Hydrogen bond acceptor B). Hydrogen bond donor C). Not involved in hydrogen bonding D). Hydrophobic functional group
Genetic engineering has been employed in fruit crops to suppress ethylene sSmthesis by modulating the activity of A). Glycerol phosphate dehydrogenase B). Phosphofructokinase
.C). ACC oxidase
D). Fructose bisphospatase



p

Replacement of serine with one of the following amino acid is aconservative
substitution
A). Threonine
B). AsParagine
C). Lysine
D). Glutamic acid

The fatty acid normally attached to the amino terminal glycine residue of an
acylated Protein is
A). Oleate
B). Palmitate
C). MYristate
D). acetYl

fo) Which one of the following E.colisigma factor is NOT an alternative signa factor
A). RPoN
B). RPoH
C). RPoS
D). RPoD

lt) Which of the following forms of DNA is left-handed
A). B-form DNA
B). A-form DNA
C). Z-form DNA
D). Heat denatured DNA

1l) Metal that is used in gene-gun for bornbardment of plant tissues
It).Znrc
B). Tungsten
C). CoPPer
D).Iron

13) Higherthe salt concenfiation ofthe DNA solution
-'e;.-I-owerthetemperatureatwh]ghtheDNAdenatures
Bj. Greater the temperature at which the DNA denatures
-ci. the but has no effect on DNA denaturation

D). Lower the
lt$A plasmid DNA sample consisti-ng of highly supercoiled DNA, nicked circular DNA, and linear DNi has been t.p*uttO by ug*ott gel electrophoresis' Which
of the foffo*i"g otOo of DNA bands from -ve to +ve electrode can be seen? A). Nicked cir;dff DNA,linearDNA, highly supercoiled DNA ej. Higny supetcoiled Dilte,Ing* DNA' nicked circular DNA
ci. riit.i oNa, nicked circular DNA, highlv supercoiled DNA
D). Highly supercoiled DNA, nicked circular DNA' linear DNA
1$Ingeneral,comparisono-fgenomesfromvariousorganismsindicates

A).-Prokaryotesiave higher gene density than eukaryotes
Sj" Eutaryotes have highff gene density than prokaryotes

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C). No difference in gene density between prokaryotes and eukaryotes
D). None of the above
16) Length of an ORF from E coli genome is 300 base pairs including its start and
stop codons. What is the length of the corresponding protein? A). 100 amino acids B).99 amino acids C). 93 amino acids D). 300 amino acids
17) Trans-splicing is A). sphCing of two exons of a preRNA during translation B). splicing oftwo exons carried on different RNA molecules C). splicing between bacterial RNA and an eukaryotic RNA D). splicing of altemative exons of a single unspliced RNA
18) Which of the following relationships between absorbance and %otransmittance is
incorrect?
A).A=1ogro100i7oT
B).A -logrcYoT
C).A=log1s1/T
D). All are correct

19) In bacteria Shine-Dalgarno sequence base pairs with
A). Pyrimidine-rich sequence atthe end of the 165 ribosomal RNA
B). Purine-rich sequence atthe end of the 165 ribosomal RNA
c). Purinedch sequence at the end of the 16s ribosomal RNA

D). Poly-A sequence at the end of the 165 ribosomal RNA
20) Which of the following statement is NOT TRUE
A). Highly competent E. coli cells do not occur naturally
B). dNTPs can be polymerized during PCR amplification
Ci. plasmids are essential for normal bacterial cell growth

nj. eUnt genetic engineering is also possible without Agrobacterium tumefaciens
21) Which of the following is an inhibitor of gyrase
A). Rifampicin
B). ChloremPhenicol
C). Novobiocin
D). Kanamycin

22)Therelationship between fatty acids and membrane fluidity is; A). Fluidity decreases with an increase inthe ratio of unsaturated to saturated fatty
acids B). Fluidity increases with a decrease in the ratio of saturated to unsaturated fatty
acids C). Fluidity decreases with parallel rise in both saturated and unsaturated fatty
acids
D). Fatty acid unsaturation has no effect on membrane fluidity

F. blt

23) How many milliliteru of a 400 mM NaOH solution are required to bring the pH of 20 milliliters of a 400 mM HCI solution to 2.0 A).4 B).40 c). r0 D).20
2a) which of the following vector is a x.-based hybrid type cloning vector A). pBR327 B). pJBs C). pfiblue
D). irEMBL4
25) Which of the following technique is used for locating the transcription start site A). Primer extension analysis B). Transcriptome analysis C). Real time PCR
D). RNA dot blot technique
PART-B
26) Targeted inactivation of a gene coding for a putative transcription factor has
resulted in an induced expression of 'gene The putative transcription factor can be A).an activator B). a repressor C).an enhancer D).an inducer
27)The first oxidative decarboxylative reaction in the citic acid cycle is A). Conversion of OAA to citrate
B). Conversion of Isocihate to a-ketoglutarate
C). Conversion of a-ketoglutarate to succinyl CoA
D). Conversion of pvnrvate to acetyl Co A

28) The immunoglobulin that results in histamine release is A).Igc B). IgM C).IgE D).IgD
29)An example of innate immunity is A). T-lymphocytes B). B-lymphocyte C). Neuhophils D). Thyroid cells


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30) The tuberculin skin test is an example of A). Type tV delayed hypersensitivity B). Allergy reaction C). Serum sickness D). Precipitation reaction
31) Cytotoxic T cells are distinguished from Helper T cells by the presence ofl A). CD2 B). CD3 c). cD8 D). Class II MHC antigen
32) High sugar concentrations axe not recommended in the fermentation because A). Crystallization of high sugar concentrations B). The process will be slow because of crystallization of calcium lactate C). Calcium lactate will not be produced
D). All
33) In copper recovery the organism being used in bleaching process is
Thi ob ac illu s feruo oxi dans
B). Aspergillus niger
C). P seudomnnes aeruginosa
D). D e s ulfuv ibr i o de sulfur i cans

34) Glycogen yields the following products on treatment with dimethyl sulfate
followed by hydrolysis. Identiff which product is produced in more abundance.
A). The residue at the reducing end of the glycogenmolecule
B). Residues at the branch points
C). Residues from the linear segments of glycogen
D). Residues at the non-reducing ends.

35) Trypsin belong to the following class of proteases A). Aspartic B). Serine C). Metallo D). Cysteine
36) If G6P is labeled at its C2 position, where will the label appear in the products of the pentose phosphate pathway? A). Cl and C3 of F6P B). Cl and C4 of F6P C).C2 and C4 of F6P D).CZ and C3 of F6P
37) H2lsO is added to a suspension of chloroplasts capable of photosynthesis. Where TJ does the label appear when the suspension is exposed to light. A). Phosophoglyceraldehyde

B). Fructose-6-phosphate
C). Oxygen
D). Dihydroxyacetonephosphate

*D-6tf

38) The decarboxylation product of the following amino acid is a potential local mediator of allergic reactions. A). Tyrosine B). Glycine C). Histidine D). Glutamine
39) Chymotrypsin specifically binds to TPCK because of its resemblance to the amino acid residue A). Lysine B). Cysteine C). Phenylalanine D). Tyrosine
40) A molecule of DNA having 10 kbp, when teated with reshiction digestion gives 5 kbp DNA on agarose gel. Please note that the only one site of cleavage was available in the DNA. What will be the form of DNA. Supercoiled DNA B). knotted DNA C). caternated DNA D). nicked circular DNA
41)A sample showed a CD spectrum with a positive peak followed by negative hough around 280 nm. This sample may be composed of: A). B-DNA B). C-DNA c). A-DNA D). Z-DNA
42)Covalerrtbonding with DNA is not exhibited by one the following molecule,
A). Ethedium bromide
B). Cisplatin
C). Distamycin
D). Bleorirycin

43)Following molecular form of DNA may partition into acidic phenol layer A). Closed circular DNA B). Linear DNA C). ssDNA D).Nicked circular DNA
44) Protease specifically cleaving peptide bonds on the carboxyl side of glutamate and aspartate residues is A).Trypsin B). HIV protease C). Pepsin D).V8 protease
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45) The virus integrates into the host genome though integration is not essential for its replication A). HrV B). Lambdaphage c). HTLV-l D). FIBV
46) Following property of nanoparticles is most important for their functional significance in vivo A). Hish Stability B). Low immunogenicrty C). Non-specificity D). High reactivity
47)Ku-70 proteins frequently associated with following repair mechanism: A). Mismatch B). base-excision C). nucleotide-excision D). double strand breaks
48) Rec A protein binds to one of the following substrate with high affinityA). Supercoiled DNA B). Linear double standed DNA C). Single stranded DNe D). Nicked circular DNA
49) One for following is mismatch: A). Topoisomerase II B). Gyrase C). Topoisomerase I D). Resolvase
50) The most widely used scoring matrices for protein sequence alignments (e.g. BLOSUM matrices) are based on A). Genetic code for amino acid B). Simple identity C). Physico-chemical properties of amino acid D). Statistics of observed substitutions in multiple sequence alignments
51) Which of the following is true for Smith-Waterman Algorithm? A). used for global alignment B). used for local alignment C). is a genetic algorithm D). is used to construct the phylogenetic tree
52) What is the principle application of the BLAST algorithm? A). Aligning two protein sequences from end to end. B). Identiffing sequences that are similar to a protein or nucleotide sequence in a
biological sequence databases.
C). Identifing the best possible alignment of two short DNA sequences.
D). To retrieve the sequence of a gene of interest.





D

53) The necrotic spots on a virus infected leaf is due to A). Toxic exudates of virus B). Dead cells as a result of virus infection C). Toxic exudates of leaf D). Just discoloration
54) Which is false statement concemiag the satellite viruses A). Contain nucleic acids B). Helper virus needed C). Not encapsidated D).No replication
55) The following viruses are being used as delivery vectors in gene therapy except A). Adenoviruses B). Herpes viruses C). Reffo viruses D).Ail
56) Which of the following radio active labels that you recommend for the study of renlication of an RNA virus Ai.ttP B). t-uridine C).3n-thymidine D).35S
57) One of the reasons behind the successfulness of developing a vaccine for small poxvirus when compared to the HIV is A). Snall pox is a DNA virus and the HIV is a RNA virus B). bristence of natural positive control for Small pox C). HIV codes for reverse hanscriptase D).None of the above answersi are correct
58) Which one of the following techniques is used for studying conservation or
diversity of bacterial gene pools across evolution
A). Ilifferential display
B). RFIP analysis
C). t{iilti-locus sequence typing (MLST)
D).Rl.IAi

59) Whfoh one of the following genome classes DO NOT have any significant novel gerrccontent A).kerobacteriacea B). Idycobacterium tuberculosis complex C). Clanobacteria D).Spirochaetes
.D-6li
60)Gain of fitness bypathogens could be due to A). Horizontal gene transfer B). Genome reduction C). Mutation D). All of the above
6l) which of the following is the method to carry out phylogenetic analysis?A). Neighbor-joining method B). Ma:<imum parsimony method C). Bayesian network method D). all the above methods
62) The following is not a chronic human pathogen
A Qalaaanlln
t pv.tr.vttvrou .lyaaa
B). Myc o b act erium tub er c ul o s i s
C). Helicobacter pylari
Streptacoccus pneumonia

63)Which one of the following cytokines is not proinflammatory? A). rL-8 B). TNF-atpha c). rL-6 D). rL-10
64) which of the following tools is used to identifr phage like sequences A). PhiSpy B). Alien Hunter c). PHAST D). All of the above
65) The following are the revolutionary approaches that gave birth to very high throughput next generation sequencing platforms A). Massive parallelization B). Miniaturization C). Advanced microfluidics D). All of the above
66) The following assay is not used to detect apoptosis A). DNA ladder assay B). Tunel assay C). Caspase,3 assay D). Comet assay
67) ln the equatiotr, A e bc, what quantity is represented by A). Absorbtivity B). Molar absorbtivity C). Path length None of these
.D 6 tf
68)In gas chromatography, the basis for separation of the components of the volatile material is the difference in A). Partition coefficients B). Conductivity C). Molecular weight D). Molarity
69)Which amino acids would most likely reside inthe membrane-anchoring domain
of a membrane embedded prctein?
A). Isoleucine, valine and phenylalanine
B). Phenylalanine, valine, and aspartate
C). Leucine, threonine, and lysine

70) In a polypeptide average mass of an amino acid residue is A). 118 daltons B). 80 daltons C). I l0 daltons D). 150 daltons
71) Coomassie Blue stains the proteins by reacting with A). free c-termini B). arginine residues C). peptide bonds D). aromatic dng
72) Which of the following is not tnre about point mutation?
A). can be induced by chemicals.
B). can be responsible for a genetic disease.
C). can be mapped by a technique similar to Maxim-Gilbert sequencing.
D). can be detected easily by Southern blotting.

73) Topoisomerase I activity
A). cuts one strand of DNA double helix
B). cuts both strands of a DNA double helix
C). changes the linking number by 2
D). requires energy supplied by ATP

74)For the following E. coli diploids, indicate rdrether the shain is inducible or constitutive, or negative for p-galactosidase ard pe$nease, respectivel;'?
Genotype: i-o"
A). Negative for p-galactosidase and constihrtive f,or permease
B). Negative for p-galactosidase and inducible forpennmse

C). Constitutive for both
D). Inducible for both

75) The mRNA produced from the lac operon would nothybridize to
A). the lacl gene
B). the lac operator sequence
C). the lacY gene
D). the lacZ gene with a single amino acid substitrsion


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