Exam Details

Subject environmental sciences
Paper paper 3
Exam / Course ugc net national eligibility test
Department
Organization university grants commission
Position
Exam Date June, 2012
City, State ,


Question Paper

PAPER-III ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE Signature and Name of Invigilator
1.
(Signature) OMR Sheet No. ............................................... (To be filled by the Candidate)

(Name)
Roll No.


2.
(Signature) (In figures as per admission card)




(Name) Roll (In words)
J 8 9 1 2

Time 2 1/2 hours] [Maximum Marks 150
Number of Pages in this Booklet 12 Instructions for the Candidates
1.
Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page.

2.
This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of questions.

3.
At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below

To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet.
Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet.


4.
Each item has four alternative responses marked


and You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the correct response against each item.

Example
where is the correct response.

5.
Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.

6.
Read instructions given inside carefully.

7.
Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.

8.
If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.

9.
You have to return the test question booklet and Original OMR Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination.

10.
Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.

11.
Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.

12.
There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.


Number of Questions in this Booklet 75
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4.
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5.
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6.
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7.
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8.
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11.
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J-89-12 1 P.T.O.

ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Paper III

Note This paper contains seventy five objective type questions, each question carrying two
marks. All questions are compulsory.
1. If the standard deviation of a population is 20, the population and sample means are 35 and 33, respectively and the t-statistic at 95% confidence level is 2.5, the sample size is

100 125


250 625



2. For 5 degrees of freedom, the variance of .2 distribution is

10 5


16 4



3. Identify the random sampling method among the following

Judgement sampling


Quota sampling


Convenience sampling


Stratified sampling



4. Consider a Box model for an urban area. Assuming that the pollutants are conservative and that the mixing is rapid inside the Box, the concentration

of pollutants varies with the mixing height as

1 1


C . C .


H H2
1

C .
C . H

5. At higher pH, majority of iron is present as
Fe2+


Fe3+




Fe2+ and Fe3+


Fe(OH)2 and Fe(OH)3



6. In living organisms phosphorous is largely associated with

Carbohydrate Lipids


Nucleic acids Proteins



7. Molar extinction coefficient of
malondialdehyde at 532 nm is 0.155 M-1
cm . The concentration of malondialdehyde in a solution which has absorbance of 0.31 in a 1 cm curette will be

0.5 M 1.0 M


1.5 M 2.0 M



8. pOH of 0.001 M solution of HCl is

0.1 1


10 11



9. The molecular weight of DDT is 354.5. The quantity of DDT required to prepare one litre of 10 ppm DDT solution is

10 mg 35.45 mg


354.5 mg 354.5 µg



Paper-III 2
J-89-12

10. Which one of the following is referred to as superoxide radical
O O2

O O
32

11. The net primary productivity of an ecosystem is

the gross primary productivity minus plant respiration


the primary productivity at herbivore level


the primary productivity at consumer level


the productivity at top consumer level minus respiration at all levels



12. Which of the following habitats has not been included as Indian biodiversity hot spots

The Eastern Ghats


The Western Ghats


North-Eastern Hills


South-Eastern Hills



13. The area of the biosphere which is protected entirely, without any experimentation and research and no biotic interference, is known as

Undisturbed zone


Buffer zone


Core zone


Principal zone



14. When a mixture of Azospirillum, Azotobacter and Vibrio was applied to rhizosphere, fixation of atmospheric nitrogen was increased. It was due to activity of

All the three


Azospirillum and Vibrio


Azotobacter and Vibrio


Azotobacter and Azospirillum



15. Which type of forests are found at an altitude of 5300 ft chiefly on mountains of Himalayas and Nilgiri

Dry deciduous forest


Moist tropical forest


Temperate forest


Tropical moist deciduous forest



16. The sequence of events that occur during primary succession is as follows

Nudation Colonisation Ecesis

Aggregation


Aggregation Colonization Ecesis Nudation


Ecesis Nudation Aggregation

Colonization


Nudation Ecesis Colonization


Aggregation

17. As per Raunkaiers law of frequency, five different frequency classes D and in a natural undisturbed community exhibit one of the following relationship

A C D E




A C D E




A C D E




A C D E




18. Which one of the following category of earthworms is most suitable for Vermicomposting

Epigeic


Anecic


Endogeic


All the above



19. Which one of the following is an in situ method of biodiversity conservation

Reserve forest


National parks


Sanctuaries


All the above



20. Match the contaminant in Column I with the disease in Column II

Column I Column II

Mercury 1. Methamoglobinemia


Nitrate 2. Itai Itai

Nitrogen
(iii)Cadmium 3. Silicosis



Coal 4. Minamata Choose the correct code



Codes


2 3 4 1


3 4 2 1


1 2 3 4


4 1 2 3


21. Which of the following types of coal contains higher percentage of volatile matter

Peat


Lignite


Bituminous


Anthracite


22. Carbon dioxide evolved from soil mainly comes from

Microbial respiration


Root respiration


Soil animals respiration


All the above


23. Which one of the following pesticides persists for a long period in soil

Lindane


Monocrotophos


Carbaryl


Parathion


24. Organic matter content of soil can be calculated from organic carbon by using the formula

OM OC × 1.724


OM OC × 1.247


OM OC × 1.472


OM OC × 1.427


25. The problem of thermal pollution can be alleviated by using

Cooling ponds


Cooling towers


More efficient electricity generating plants


All the above



Paper-III 4
J-89-12
26. According to Recycled Plastics (Manufacture and Usage) Rules 1999, the minimum thickness of carry bags shall not be less than

10 microns 20 microns


30 microns 50 microns


27. Match the Act mentioned in Column I with the year of enactment mentioned in Column II


Column I Column II

The Water 1. 2002 (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act


The Air (Prevention 2. 1986 and Control of Pollution) Act

(iii)The Environmental 3. 1974 (Protection) Act


The Biological 4. 1981 Diversity Act


Choose the correct code

Codes


1 4 3 2


3 4 2 1


3 2 1 4


2 4 3 1



28. Which one of the following is not an energy recovery method of solid waste management

Pelletisation


Biomethanation


Pyrolysis


Composting



29. The colour code of the container for collection of waste scrap generated from Hospitals is

Red Blue


White Green



30. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion and the other labelled as Reason
Assertion When quantitative probabilistic risk assessment is performed on hazardous waste sites they usually turn out to be of relatively low threats.
Reason In hazardous waste sites the chance of exposure is low because of isolation of drinking water supplies and prevention of access.
Choose the correct answer

Both and are true and is the correct explanation of


Both and are true, but

is not the correct explanation of


is true, but is false.


is false, but is true.



31. In India, an Environment Impact Assessment report of a proposed mining project after environmental clearance is applicable for a maximal period of how many years

5 years 10 years


30 years 2 years



32. An increase of one unit of Richter Scale represents an increase in amplitude by a factor of

10 100


1000 2



33. Which rare earth element is not present in the earth's crust but for commercial purpose comes from the Nuclear reactors

Promethium Lanthanum


Cerium Samarium



34. To display green colour in the monitor the amount of RGB should be

255 0 0


255 255 255


0 0 0


0 255 0



35. When the temperature range in geothermal resource is generally low, electrical power generation from such resources require the use of secondary low boiling point fluid. This is generally known as

Rankine cycle


Production well cycle


Flash stem cycle


Hard Dry Rock cycle



36. The Global Warming Potential is the least for which of the following greenhouse gases

CO2


N2O SF6


4

37. The maximum specific power output

from a MHD power generator varies with the velocity of hot ionized gas as


p . u p . u2 3/2 3


p . p . u



38. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion and the other labelled as Reason
Assertion Electrostatic precipitators (ESPs) can be harmful if not operated properly.
Reason Corona discharge in ESPs produces ozone. Choose the correct answer

Both and are correct and

is the correct explanation of


Both and are correct and

is not the correct explanation of


is true, but is false.


Both and are false.



39. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion and the other labelled as Reason
Assertion Vegetation hedges are the best way to control noise. Reason Vegetation hedges scatter noise. Choose the correct answer.

Both and are correct and

is the correct explanation of


Both and are correct, but

is not the correct explanation of


is true, but is false.


is false, but is true.



Paper-III 6
J-89-12

40. If w and ws are mixing ratio and saturation mixing ratio respectively; T and Td are the ambient temperature and dew point temperature respectively, then identify the correct expression of relative humidity
w at Td
RH
w at T
w at T

RH


w at Td ws at Td

RH

ws at T
ws at T
RH
ws at Td

...
41. Identify mesoscale phenomenon.

Tornado


Sea breeze


Cyclone


Eddies



42. For elevations less than few hundred metres, if the wind speeds are u1 and u2 at elevations z1 and z2 respectively, the
1 2

...

...

...

u

z

1
following equation holds



u

z

2

43. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion and the other labelled as Reason
Assertion Noise gets attenuated more in dry atmosphere.
Reason Moist air is less denser than dry air.
Choose the correct answer

Both and are true and is the correct explanation of


Both and are true and is not the correct explanation of


is true, but is false.


is false, but is true.




44. OH radicals in atmosphere play a role of

scavenger


acidifier


reducing agent


greenhouse gas



45. The slow neutrons initiating nuclear
fission with U235 have energies of the order of

0.25 MeV


0.15 MeV


p
0.25 eV
.
0.025 eV
The value of the exponent p is

0.6


1


0.6


negative



46. The most suitable range of wind speeds for wind power generation is

1 5 m/s


4 12 m/s


10 20 m/s


20 50 m/s



47. For energy to be produced from nuclear fusion of Deuterium and Tritium the mixture of D T has to be heated up to energies of at least

1 KeV


10 KeV


500 eV


1 MeV



48. Element contaminating the water body is determined and quantified by using one of the following methods

Colorimeter


Spectrophotometer


Atomic absorption spectrometer


All the above



49. In which type of chromatography four modes viz, Absorption, partition, Ion exchange and exclusion, are present

HPLC


Liquid-liquid chromatography


Ion-exchange chromatography


Adsorption chromatography



50. The metal which is generally absorbed by plants along with Zn and causes "Ouch Ouch" disease in human beings is

Pb


Cd


Hg


Cr



51. Radioactive isotopes of which of the elements in human body decay every second
K40

and C14
C14



and N6
N16



and K40


None of the above



52. Which of the following techniques is most appropriate for determining crystalline structure of environmental samples

Infrared spectroscopy


X-ray diffraction


Microspectrophotometry


Raman spectroscopy



53. Which one of the following is the most predominant element in a majority of igneous rocks

Al Fe


O Si



54. Match the entries in Group-I with the process parameters in Group-II

Group-I Group-II

Clark electrode 1. Dissolved Oxygen


Redox Probe 2. pH (iii)Load cell 3. Liquid level


Diaphragm 4. Vessel


gauge pressure Choose the correct code

Codes


1 2 3 4


2 1 4 3


1 4 3 2


4 3 2 1



Paper-III 8
J-89-12

55. Which one of the following is used to determine total organic matter by Walkley and Black method

KOH and H2SO4


NaSO and HSO


KCrO and HSO


HNO3 and H2SO4


22324
22724

56. As per WHO standards the maximum permissible level of coliform organisms per 100 ml of drinking water is

10 100


150 1000



57. Progressive increase in concentration of a xenobiotic compound when it passes through the food chain is called

Biomagnification


Hyper accumulation


Bioaccumulation


None of the above



58. Highest level of biotic interaction is

Mutualism


Predation


Parasitism


Amensalism



59. Which one of the following is considered as indicator of aquatic pollution

Rotifers


Copepods


Mysids


Calanoids



60. Poorly nourished lakes are known as

Oligotrophic


Eutrophic


Mesotrophic


Xerotrophic



61. Identify a sampling method which is not non-destructive.

Sub-surface coring


Using of neutron probes to measure soil water


Fourier transform infrared spectroscopy


Time domain refractometry to measure soil water



62. Ministry of Environment and Forests amended the EIA notification making public hearing mandatory for environmental clearance on

27th January 1996


10th April 1997


27th January 1997


None of the above



63. The allochthonous microorganisms of an ecosystem are

Indigenous microorganisms


Migrant


Parasitic


Pathogenic



64. The rate of evaporation of oil spilled into the sea depends on

The elemental concentration of sea water


The composition of sea water microflora


Composition of the crude oil


The temperature of the sea



65. The most dangerous and heat resistant spoilage organism in canning industry is

Clostridium cellulolyticum


Bacillus subtilis


E.coli


Clostridium botulinum



66. Oxygen concentrations in compost developed in static piles usually

Ten times lower than in ambient air


Five times lower than in ambient air


Two times more than in ambient air


Five times more than in ambient air



67. If a bacterium with a 20 minute generation time is grown under optimal conditions (37 one cell would
multiply to 103 (1000) cells in 3.3 hours, then how much time it will take to multiply to 106 cells

5.3 hrs. 6.6 hrs.


9.9 hrs. 6.3 hrs.



68. The biodegradation of plant material is slow because of presence of

Cellulose


Xylene


Extensin/protein


Lignin



69. The widely used aerobic suspension type of liquid waste treatment system is

Rotating Biological Contactor


Percolating filter


Activated sludge process


Septic tank



70. The treatment designed to remove non-biodegradable organic pollutants and mineral nutrients from waste water is

Lagoons


Imhoff tank


Secondary treatment


Tertiary treatment



Paper-III 10
J-89-12

71. An ecotype is

Genetically different forms of the same organisms


Genetically similar forms of the same organisms


Morphologically different forms of the same organisms


Both and



72. Ultraviolet radiations are lethal due to inactivation of

Proteins, nucleic acids and pigments


Minerals, water and air


Carbohydrates, fats and vitamins


O2, CO2 and water



73. The following are the characters of species diversity

More richness


More evenness


More dominance

Less dominance


Less richness


Less evenness

Point out the combination of conditions in which species diversity of an ecosystem will be more.


and


and


and


and



74. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion and the other labelled as Reason
Assertion If natality is greater than mortality, it leads to population explosion.
Reason The scientific study of various species of human population is called demography.
Choose the correct answer

Both and are true and is the correct explanation of


Both and are true, but

is not the correct explanation of


is true, but is false.


Both and are false.



75. Match Column I with Column II Column I Column II

Chipko 1. Medha Movement Patkar


Narmada 2. Al Gore Bacchao Andolan

(iii)Climate Change 3. Rachel Carson


Silent Spring 4. Sundarlal Bahuguna


Choose the correct code


Codes


1 2 3 4


2 3 4 1


4 1 2 3


3 4 1 2


Space For Rough Work

Paper-III 12
J-89-12


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  • sociology
  • spanish
  • tamil
  • telugu
  • tourism administration and management
  • tribal and regional languageliterature
  • urdu
  • visual art
  • women studies