Exam Details
Subject | Common Cardio-Vascular Diseases-I | |
Paper | ||
Exam / Course | Post Graduate Diploma in Clinical Cardiology | |
Department | School of Health Science (SOHS) | |
Organization | indira gandhi national open university | |
Position | ||
Exam Date | December, 2015 | |
City, State | new delhi, |
Question Paper
1. In the pathobiology of atherosclerosis, which of the following statements are correct
It is an int1ammatory/repair response in vessel wall initiated by lipid.
Majority of foam cells are derived from monocytes.
Small pools of extracellular lipids seen in type II lesion.
Stage IV lesion is characterised by formation of a fibrous capsule.
a+b
c+d
a+d
2. Which of the following statements are correct
Systolic BP correlates to CAD more than diastolic BP.
Atherogenic risk is present in prediabetes state.
Adverse effects of smoking is stronger in men than women.
Total body fat rather than its distribution correlates with CAD.
a+b
c+d
a+d
3. Which of the following occur in metabolic syndrome?
Low levels of small dense LDL particles
High HDL-C
Central obesity
Insulin resistance
a+b
c+d
a+d
4. Which of the following are correct regarding cardiovascular risk of obesity
Obesity is associated with elevated blood sugar, cholesterol and blood pressure
BMI is (weight in kg^2)/height in meters
Relative risk for CAD in morbid obese women is 2
Weight/Hip ratio correlates better with CAD than BMI
a+b
c+d
a+d
5. Which of the following statements are correct
Vitamin levels should be checked before initiation of folate for B12 hyperhomocysteinemia
Weight loss and exercise increase CRP levels
Plasma fibrinogen levels of above 150 mg/dL increases risk for stroke and myocardial infarction
Thrombospondins influence cell adhesion and vascular integrity
c+d
a+d
6. Which of the following regarding coronary circulations are wrong?
Myocardium derives energy only from aerobic metabolism
EDRF and prostacyclin have opposing actions on vascular smooth muscle
Coronary auto regulation influences collaterals
Adenosine causes coronary reactive hyperaemia
a+b
c+d
a+d
7. Which of the following statements are correct
Chylomicrons carry exogenous triglyceride
Chylomicron remnants are cleared by skeletal muscles
HDL particles contain apoprotein B100
VLDL particles carry cholesterol and triglyceride from liver
a+b
c+d
a+d
8. Which of the following regarding diet in therapeutic life style changes are wrong?
Saturated fat to be less than 15% of total calories
Carbohydrates form 25 of total calories
Dietary cholesterol less than 200 mg/day
Dietary soluble fibre of 5 -10 gm/day
a+b
c+d
a+d
9. A 40 years old diabetic, dyslipidemic male with strong family history of coronary artery disease has retrosternal discomfort while walking for the past 6 months. Which of the following statements are incorrect
His resting ECG is likely to be abnormal
Treadmill test will give diagnostic and prognostic information
Myocardial perfusion scan will indicate the involved arterial territory
Coronary angiogram to be done urgently
a+b
c+d
a+d
10. A known case of exertional angina on regular medication for the past one year comes with history of one episode of angina at rest 3 weeks ago. Which of the following statements are correct
He is in Brawnwald clinical classification class IB2
Heparin to be given for 5 days
Should be put on dual antiplatelets if ECG shows ST, T changes
Estimation of biomarkers of necrosis helps in risk stratification
a+b
c+d
a+d
11. A poorly controlled diabetic of 10 years duration presents to emergency room with sudden onset of chest discomfort. On examination he has tachycardia, systolic BP of 80 mm Hg, jugular venous distension and no pulmonary congestion. Which of the following statements are correct
Patient is in Killip class III
Morphine can be given for pain relief
Nitroglycerine infusion to be avoided
ECG may show ST elevation in II, III and a VF
a+b
c d
a
12. Which of the following statements regarding cardiac injury enzymes are correct
Troponin I is more specific than troponin T.
CK -MB is more useful to diagnose reinfarction than troponins.
Myoglobin levels increase 8 hours after myocardial infarction.
LDH levels normalise by 72 hours after myocardial infarction.
a+b
c d
a
13. Which of the following are true regarding cardiogenic shock?
Presents with cold extremities, tachycardia, sweating
Systolic BP is less than 90 mm Hg
Mortality is around 30%
Cardiac index is more than 1.8 L/min/m2
a+b
c d
a
14. Which of the following statements about complete heart block in acute myocardial infarction are correct
More common in inferior rather than anterior wall infarction
Escape rhythm in inferior wall infarction will have narrow QRS
In anterior wall infarction, indicates extensive myocardial damage
In inferior wall infarction, indicates infra Hisian lesion
a+b
c d
a d
15. Regarding arrhythmias in myocardial infarction, which of the following are not correct
Accelerated idioventricular rhythm requires no drug therapy
Hemodynamically stable ventricular tachycardia can be managed by parenteral amiodarone
Synchronized cardioversion is needed for ventricular fibrillation
Intravenous adenosine will revert atrial fibrillation to sinus rhythm
a+b
c+d
a+d
16. Which of the following statements regarding supraventricular arrhythmias in acute myocardial infarction is wrong
Supraventricular tachycardia is well tolerated
Atrial flutter is most uncommon
Atrial fibrillation can occur with ventricular dysfunction
Atrial fibrillation in myocardial infarction, does not influence morbidity and mortality a+b c+d a+d
17. Which of the following are contraindications for thrombolysis
Intracranial hemorrhage in the past
Suspected aortic dissection
Within a week of renal biopsy
Heavy menstrual bleeding
a+b
c+d
a+d
18. Which of the following statements are correct
Papillary muscle rupture is uncommon in anterior wall myocardial infarction
Ventricular septal rupture can complicate within 24 hours of myocardial infarction
Free wall rupture presents as sudden unanticipated death
Acute mitral regurgitation leads to grade IV holosystolic murmur
a+b
c+d
a+d
19. Which of the following secondary prevention strategy is most useful?
Weight reduction
Smoking cessation
Antiplatelets
Statin
20. Which of the following are incorrect regarding management of ventricular tachycardia?
In hemodynamically stable patient, asynchronous electrical cardioversion is to be done
If systolic BP is less than 90 mm Hg, pharmacological cardioversion is indicated
IV lignocaine is preferred over amiodarone
If pulse is not felt, management should be as a cardiopulmonary arrest
a+b
c+d
a+d
21. Which of the following statements regarding CPR are correct
Defibrillation is the most important step to ensure survival
The optimal adult paddle for defibrillation should be 8 -10 cms
Endotracheal route is not a substitute for a venous access when drugs have to be given
Calcium gluconate is useful only if there is hyperkalemia or hypocalcemia
a+b
c+d
a+d
22. Which of the following statements are correct
Norepinephrine is a powerful vasoconstrictor with mild inotropic effect
Isoprenaline is a naturally occurring catecholamine
Phenyl ephrine improves cardiac contractility
Parenteral calcium is useful in over dosage of verapamil
a+b
c+d
a+d
23. Which of the following statements are correct?
Alpha 2 stimulation decreases intracellular free calcium
Beta 2 stimulation decreases cyclic AMP level
Dobutamine stimulates Beta Beta 2 receptors
Dopamine has dose dependent effect on Beta 1 and Alpha 1 receptors
a+b
c+d
a+d
24. Which of the following are true about cyanotic spell
Often precipitated by bradycardia
Pulmonary ejection systolic murmur becomes louder
IV metoprolol is recommended
Sodabicarbonate diluted in Islyte and to be given
a+b
c+d
a+d
25. Which of the following statements regarding diagnosis of pulmonary embolism are true?
D dimer estimation has high positive predictability
A PTT is useful to monitor low molecular weight heparin therapy
CT pulmonary angiogram is the gold standard imaging modality for pulmonary embolism
Sub massive pulmonary embolism with RV dysfunction requires thrombolysis
a+b
c+d
a+d
26. Which of the following statements are correct regarding blood pressure estimation
Width of the cuff should be 40% of arm circumference
Length of the cuff should be more than 80% of arm circumference
Arm should be well supported
Phase 4 korotkoff sound corresponds to diastolic BP
a+b
c+d
a+d
27. Which of the following statements are correct?
White coat hypertension can be diagnosed by home estimation of BP
Ambulatory blood pressure recording detects masked hypertension
Auscultatory gap can be avoided if palpatory estimation of systolic BP is done first
A diastolic BP of 90 mm Hg can be normal in pregnancy a+b c+d a+d
28. Which of the following are clues to secondary hypertension?
Weak, delayed lower limb pulses
Persistent hypokalemia
Spells of headache, sweating, palpitation and tremors
Low levels of 24 hours urinary cortisol
a+b
c+d
a+d
29. BP should be rapidly controlled in which of the following situations?
Eclampsia
Epistaxis
Aortic dissection
Diastolic BP of 110 mm of Hg in elderly
a+b
c+d
a+d
30. Which of the following statements regarding gestational hypertension are correct?
ACE inhibitors are contraindicated
Methyldopa is commonly used
Betablocker can induce fetal bradycardia
Diuretics to be used for preventing eclampsia
a+b
c+d
a+d
31. Which of the following statements are wrong?
Pre-eclampsia denotes elevated BP after 28 weeks of gestation
ACE inhibitors and diuretics reduce recurrence of stroke
Daily consumption of more than 1 ounce of ethanol increases BP
Risk of stroke doubles when diastolic BP increases from 91 mm Hg to 105 mm Hg
a+b
c+d
a+d
32. Which of the following statements regarding ACE inhibitors are correct
To be discontinued if baseline serum creatinine increased by 10%
Cause degradation of bradykinin
Reduce after load
Improve baroreceptor function
a b
c d
a d
a b c
33. Which of the following antihypertensive drugs are centrally acting?
Methyldopa
Clonidine
Monoxidine
Terazosin
a+b
c+d
a+d
34. Which of the following are correct about cilnidipine
Is a calcium channel blocking drug
Blocks Land N type of calcium channels
Decreases Pressure in capillary bed
Causes reflex tachycardia
a
c d
a d
35. In a patient with diabetes, bronchial asthma and hypertension which of the following drugs can be used?
Verapamil
Perindopril
Telmisartan
Propranolol
a
d
a d
36. An asymptomatic diabetic with family history of cardiomyopathy has no other risk factors. With respect to staging of heart failure, which of the following statement is correct
Stage A heart failure
Stage B heart failure
Stage C -New York Heart Association Class I
Stage C -New York Heart Association Class II
37. Systemic infections precipitate heart failure by
Increased body metabolism enforces hemodynamic burden on the heart
Increased heart rate worsens heart failure
Inflammatory cytokine affect automaticity
All infections cause myocarditis
a+b
c+d
a+d
38. Which of the following statements on heart failure are correct
Angiotensin 2 leads to vasoconstriction
Beta 2 receptors stimulation in juxta glamerular apparatus results in renin release
Aldosterone has no direct effects on myocardium
Angiotensin 2 causes remodelling of cardiac myocytes
a+b
c+d
a+d
39. Which of the following drugs cause dilatation of pulmonary vein
Nitroglycerine
Frusemide
Morphine
Sodium nitroprusside
a+b
c+d
a+d
40. Which of the following statements are correct
Sodium and water retention cause pulmonary congestion and edema in long term
Vasoconstriction increases BP but causes pump dysfunction by increase in after load
Hypertrophy unload individual muscle fibres and increase wall tension
Sympathetic stimulation increases heart rate and stroke volume and decreases energy expenditure
a
c+d
a d
41. Which of the following statements regarding cardiac transplantation are correct
5 year survival rate is about 70%
Immunosuppressants can lead to cancers on long term
Coronary atherosclerosis in transplanted heart is rare
Cyclosporine rarely causes renal dysfunction
a+b
c+d
a+c
b+d
42. Which of the following statements about Digoxin are correct
Digitoxicity occurs when serum digoxin levels are between 0.7 and 1.2 nanogram/mL
Digoxin is not useful when patients are symptomatic on diuretics and ACE inhibitors
Useful in patients with heart failure in atrial fibrillation
Has no mortality benefit in cardiac failure
a+b
c+d
a+d
43. Which of the following statements are correct regarding digitoxicity
Digitoxicity is rare with serum levels below 1.8 nanogram/mL
Half life of digoxin immunofab is shorter than that of digoxin
Lidocaine is not useful for digoxin induced ventricular arrhythmias
Electrical cardioversion is ideal
a+b
c+d
a+d
44. Which of the following statements about diuretic are correct
Metalazone acts on proximal convoluted tubule
Epilerone decreases potassium secretion by distal convoluted tubule
Continuous IV infusion of loop diuretics may overcome diuretic resistance
Metalazone should not be combined with loop diuretics
a+b
c+d
a d
a
45. Which of the following statements regarding treatment of cardiac failure are correct
For similar positive inotropic effect, dobutamine causes less increase in heart rate compared to dopamine
Inotropic effect of dobutamine is affected through norepinephrine release from myocardium
Ventricular arrhythmias are uncommon with long term dobutamine use
Dobutamine cause mild decrease in peripheral vascular resistance
a+b
c+d
a+d
46. Following are suggestive of renovascular hypertension except:
Abrupt onset of moderate hypertension
Hypertension in young
Presence of abdominal bruit
Marked fluctuations in blood pressure
47. Following are suggestive of endocrinal hypertension except:
Truncal obesity
Persistent hypokalemia
Malignant hypertension with papilledema
Thin skin
48. Following are true about gestational hypertension except:
Usually seen in primigravida in 20th week
Increase of blood pressure by 30/15 mm Hg or more above 140/80 mm Hg
Can progress to pre-eclampsia
Associated with ketonuria
49. Feature inappropriate for usual primary hypertension is
Onset before 20 years
Serum creatinine> 1.5 mg/100 mL
Abdominal bruit
Persistent hyperkalemia
50. Following is not true about involvement of heart in hypertension:
Left ventricular hypertrophy
10 -fold increase in coronary artery disease when blood pressure> 91 -105 mm Hg
Myocardial ischemia is common
Diastolic heart failure can occur
51. Following is not seen in Keith -Wagner Grade III retinopathy:
Papilledema
Copper -wire appearance
Silver -wire appearance
Cotton -wool exudates
52. Following condition requires rapid treatment of hypertension:
Acute aortic dissection
Stable angina
Intra -cerebral hemorrhage
Eclampsia
53. Following is not used in treating hypertensive emergency:
Sublingual nifedipine
Sodium nitroprusside infusion
LV. diazoxide
LV. enalapril
54. Following drug is used in treating pre -eclampsia:
Diuretics
ACE inhibitor
Methyldopa
Amlodepine
55. Phase 4 Korotkoff sound is
Tapping
Soft murmur
Loud murmur
Muffled
56. Korotkoff sounds are difficult to hear in
Aortic stenosis
Shock
Heart failure
All of the above
57. Isolated systolic hypertension is defined as a systolic BP more than:
140 mm Hg
150 mm Hg
160 mm Hg
170 mm Hg
58. Difference in BP between two arms is abnormal when it is more than
5mmHg
10mmHg
15 mmHg
20mmHg
59. Renal damage in hypertension include all except:
Microalbuminuria
Nephrosclerosis
Renal failure
None of the above
60. Treatment goal for hypertension in diabetes is less than:
120/80 mm Hg
125/85 mm Hg
130/80 mm Hg
140/80 mm Hg
61. One kg decrease in body weight is associated with a fall in BP by
1.2 mmHg
1.6 mmHg
2.0mmHg
2.5 mmHg
62. Following are not true about salt restriction in hypertension except:
No addition of salt during cooking
Avoid fast foods
To use half sodium half potassium salt if required
None of the above
63. Following is not used to treat hypertension after myocardial infarction:
ACEI
ARB
Diltiazem
Beta-blockers
64. Anti -hypertensives of choice in heart failure are all except
Diuretic
ACEI
ARB
Beta-blockers
65. Following ARB is/are shown to have better effect in renal hypertension:
Candesartan
Irbesartan
Both
None
66. Following arrhythmias can aggravate heart failure except:
Tachyarrhythmias
Marked bradycardia
Abnormal intraventricular conduction
None of the above
67. Following can precipitate heart failure except:
Pregnancy
Hypothyroidism
Hyperthyroidism
None of the above
68. According to Frank-Starling's law increased left ventricular volume leads to
Faster rate of relaxation
Lesser peak pressure
Slower rate of pressure rise
All of the above
69. Activation of RAAS leads to
Maintains blood pressure
Maintains perfusion of vital organs
Both
None
70. Following are true about natriuretic peptides except:
ANP is stored in atrium
CNP is located in vasculature
BNP is stored mainly in ventricular myocardium
None of the above
71. Angiotensin II
Is a powerful vasoconstrictor
Stimulates aldosterone release
Causes remodelling of the myocytes
All of the above
72. Commonest cause of right heart failure is
COPD
Left heart failure
Pulmonary hypertension
None of the above
73. In diastolic heart failure all are present except:
Ventricular relaxation is impaired
Ventricular filling pressure is elevated
Systemic venous congestion can occur
None of the above
74. All contribute to P.N.D. except:
Increased sympathetiC support
Increased intrathoracic pressure
Depression of respiratory center
None of the above
75. Hemoptysis in heart failure can result from:
Respiratory infection
Pulmonary embolism
Rupture of pulmonary v«enules
All of the above
76. Fatty streak is lesion:
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
77. Following category of patients will have more atherosclerotic plaques:
Smokers Hypertensives Hyperlipidemics All of the above MCC-003 14 78. Patients with diabetes will have: More short segment coronary lesions
Greater number of affected coronary vessels
Both of the above
None of the above
79. Basal portion of the interventricular septum is supplied by:
Posterior Descending artery
Left anterior descending artery
Left circumflex artery
None of the above
80. Most of the coronary blood flow occurs during:
Systole
Diastole
Both
None
81. Reverse cholesterol transport is mediated by
LDL
HDL
VLDL
IDL
82. Patient's risk of future event is based on
Presence of known CAD
Family history of premature CAD
Both
None
83. All are side -effects of statin except:
Elevation of transaminases
Myopathy
Mild gastrointestinal disturbances
None of the above
84. All are statin trials except:
WOSCOPS
HPS
HYVET
CARE
85. Unstable Angina is characterized by
Rest angina
Recent angina
Crescendo angina
None
86. Rest angina within 48 hrs. is Braunwald's
Class II
Class I
Class III
None
87. In a case of myocardial infarction Q-wave in the ECG appears in
Hyperacute phase
Acute phase
Subacute phase
None of the above
88. Most sensitive right precordial lead for detection of RV infarction is
V4R
V5R
V6R
None
89. Which of the following is not helpful in treating a child with a cyanotic spell
Knee chest position
Sedation
Oxygen
Beta-blockers
90. Primary PCI is indicated when
Availability of skilled PCI laboratory
Short transport time
Cardiogenic shock
All of the above
It is an int1ammatory/repair response in vessel wall initiated by lipid.
Majority of foam cells are derived from monocytes.
Small pools of extracellular lipids seen in type II lesion.
Stage IV lesion is characterised by formation of a fibrous capsule.
a+b
c+d
a+d
2. Which of the following statements are correct
Systolic BP correlates to CAD more than diastolic BP.
Atherogenic risk is present in prediabetes state.
Adverse effects of smoking is stronger in men than women.
Total body fat rather than its distribution correlates with CAD.
a+b
c+d
a+d
3. Which of the following occur in metabolic syndrome?
Low levels of small dense LDL particles
High HDL-C
Central obesity
Insulin resistance
a+b
c+d
a+d
4. Which of the following are correct regarding cardiovascular risk of obesity
Obesity is associated with elevated blood sugar, cholesterol and blood pressure
BMI is (weight in kg^2)/height in meters
Relative risk for CAD in morbid obese women is 2
Weight/Hip ratio correlates better with CAD than BMI
a+b
c+d
a+d
5. Which of the following statements are correct
Vitamin levels should be checked before initiation of folate for B12 hyperhomocysteinemia
Weight loss and exercise increase CRP levels
Plasma fibrinogen levels of above 150 mg/dL increases risk for stroke and myocardial infarction
Thrombospondins influence cell adhesion and vascular integrity
c+d
a+d
6. Which of the following regarding coronary circulations are wrong?
Myocardium derives energy only from aerobic metabolism
EDRF and prostacyclin have opposing actions on vascular smooth muscle
Coronary auto regulation influences collaterals
Adenosine causes coronary reactive hyperaemia
a+b
c+d
a+d
7. Which of the following statements are correct
Chylomicrons carry exogenous triglyceride
Chylomicron remnants are cleared by skeletal muscles
HDL particles contain apoprotein B100
VLDL particles carry cholesterol and triglyceride from liver
a+b
c+d
a+d
8. Which of the following regarding diet in therapeutic life style changes are wrong?
Saturated fat to be less than 15% of total calories
Carbohydrates form 25 of total calories
Dietary cholesterol less than 200 mg/day
Dietary soluble fibre of 5 -10 gm/day
a+b
c+d
a+d
9. A 40 years old diabetic, dyslipidemic male with strong family history of coronary artery disease has retrosternal discomfort while walking for the past 6 months. Which of the following statements are incorrect
His resting ECG is likely to be abnormal
Treadmill test will give diagnostic and prognostic information
Myocardial perfusion scan will indicate the involved arterial territory
Coronary angiogram to be done urgently
a+b
c+d
a+d
10. A known case of exertional angina on regular medication for the past one year comes with history of one episode of angina at rest 3 weeks ago. Which of the following statements are correct
He is in Brawnwald clinical classification class IB2
Heparin to be given for 5 days
Should be put on dual antiplatelets if ECG shows ST, T changes
Estimation of biomarkers of necrosis helps in risk stratification
a+b
c+d
a+d
11. A poorly controlled diabetic of 10 years duration presents to emergency room with sudden onset of chest discomfort. On examination he has tachycardia, systolic BP of 80 mm Hg, jugular venous distension and no pulmonary congestion. Which of the following statements are correct
Patient is in Killip class III
Morphine can be given for pain relief
Nitroglycerine infusion to be avoided
ECG may show ST elevation in II, III and a VF
a+b
c d
a
12. Which of the following statements regarding cardiac injury enzymes are correct
Troponin I is more specific than troponin T.
CK -MB is more useful to diagnose reinfarction than troponins.
Myoglobin levels increase 8 hours after myocardial infarction.
LDH levels normalise by 72 hours after myocardial infarction.
a+b
c d
a
13. Which of the following are true regarding cardiogenic shock?
Presents with cold extremities, tachycardia, sweating
Systolic BP is less than 90 mm Hg
Mortality is around 30%
Cardiac index is more than 1.8 L/min/m2
a+b
c d
a
14. Which of the following statements about complete heart block in acute myocardial infarction are correct
More common in inferior rather than anterior wall infarction
Escape rhythm in inferior wall infarction will have narrow QRS
In anterior wall infarction, indicates extensive myocardial damage
In inferior wall infarction, indicates infra Hisian lesion
a+b
c d
a d
15. Regarding arrhythmias in myocardial infarction, which of the following are not correct
Accelerated idioventricular rhythm requires no drug therapy
Hemodynamically stable ventricular tachycardia can be managed by parenteral amiodarone
Synchronized cardioversion is needed for ventricular fibrillation
Intravenous adenosine will revert atrial fibrillation to sinus rhythm
a+b
c+d
a+d
16. Which of the following statements regarding supraventricular arrhythmias in acute myocardial infarction is wrong
Supraventricular tachycardia is well tolerated
Atrial flutter is most uncommon
Atrial fibrillation can occur with ventricular dysfunction
Atrial fibrillation in myocardial infarction, does not influence morbidity and mortality a+b c+d a+d
17. Which of the following are contraindications for thrombolysis
Intracranial hemorrhage in the past
Suspected aortic dissection
Within a week of renal biopsy
Heavy menstrual bleeding
a+b
c+d
a+d
18. Which of the following statements are correct
Papillary muscle rupture is uncommon in anterior wall myocardial infarction
Ventricular septal rupture can complicate within 24 hours of myocardial infarction
Free wall rupture presents as sudden unanticipated death
Acute mitral regurgitation leads to grade IV holosystolic murmur
a+b
c+d
a+d
19. Which of the following secondary prevention strategy is most useful?
Weight reduction
Smoking cessation
Antiplatelets
Statin
20. Which of the following are incorrect regarding management of ventricular tachycardia?
In hemodynamically stable patient, asynchronous electrical cardioversion is to be done
If systolic BP is less than 90 mm Hg, pharmacological cardioversion is indicated
IV lignocaine is preferred over amiodarone
If pulse is not felt, management should be as a cardiopulmonary arrest
a+b
c+d
a+d
21. Which of the following statements regarding CPR are correct
Defibrillation is the most important step to ensure survival
The optimal adult paddle for defibrillation should be 8 -10 cms
Endotracheal route is not a substitute for a venous access when drugs have to be given
Calcium gluconate is useful only if there is hyperkalemia or hypocalcemia
a+b
c+d
a+d
22. Which of the following statements are correct
Norepinephrine is a powerful vasoconstrictor with mild inotropic effect
Isoprenaline is a naturally occurring catecholamine
Phenyl ephrine improves cardiac contractility
Parenteral calcium is useful in over dosage of verapamil
a+b
c+d
a+d
23. Which of the following statements are correct?
Alpha 2 stimulation decreases intracellular free calcium
Beta 2 stimulation decreases cyclic AMP level
Dobutamine stimulates Beta Beta 2 receptors
Dopamine has dose dependent effect on Beta 1 and Alpha 1 receptors
a+b
c+d
a+d
24. Which of the following are true about cyanotic spell
Often precipitated by bradycardia
Pulmonary ejection systolic murmur becomes louder
IV metoprolol is recommended
Sodabicarbonate diluted in Islyte and to be given
a+b
c+d
a+d
25. Which of the following statements regarding diagnosis of pulmonary embolism are true?
D dimer estimation has high positive predictability
A PTT is useful to monitor low molecular weight heparin therapy
CT pulmonary angiogram is the gold standard imaging modality for pulmonary embolism
Sub massive pulmonary embolism with RV dysfunction requires thrombolysis
a+b
c+d
a+d
26. Which of the following statements are correct regarding blood pressure estimation
Width of the cuff should be 40% of arm circumference
Length of the cuff should be more than 80% of arm circumference
Arm should be well supported
Phase 4 korotkoff sound corresponds to diastolic BP
a+b
c+d
a+d
27. Which of the following statements are correct?
White coat hypertension can be diagnosed by home estimation of BP
Ambulatory blood pressure recording detects masked hypertension
Auscultatory gap can be avoided if palpatory estimation of systolic BP is done first
A diastolic BP of 90 mm Hg can be normal in pregnancy a+b c+d a+d
28. Which of the following are clues to secondary hypertension?
Weak, delayed lower limb pulses
Persistent hypokalemia
Spells of headache, sweating, palpitation and tremors
Low levels of 24 hours urinary cortisol
a+b
c+d
a+d
29. BP should be rapidly controlled in which of the following situations?
Eclampsia
Epistaxis
Aortic dissection
Diastolic BP of 110 mm of Hg in elderly
a+b
c+d
a+d
30. Which of the following statements regarding gestational hypertension are correct?
ACE inhibitors are contraindicated
Methyldopa is commonly used
Betablocker can induce fetal bradycardia
Diuretics to be used for preventing eclampsia
a+b
c+d
a+d
31. Which of the following statements are wrong?
Pre-eclampsia denotes elevated BP after 28 weeks of gestation
ACE inhibitors and diuretics reduce recurrence of stroke
Daily consumption of more than 1 ounce of ethanol increases BP
Risk of stroke doubles when diastolic BP increases from 91 mm Hg to 105 mm Hg
a+b
c+d
a+d
32. Which of the following statements regarding ACE inhibitors are correct
To be discontinued if baseline serum creatinine increased by 10%
Cause degradation of bradykinin
Reduce after load
Improve baroreceptor function
a b
c d
a d
a b c
33. Which of the following antihypertensive drugs are centrally acting?
Methyldopa
Clonidine
Monoxidine
Terazosin
a+b
c+d
a+d
34. Which of the following are correct about cilnidipine
Is a calcium channel blocking drug
Blocks Land N type of calcium channels
Decreases Pressure in capillary bed
Causes reflex tachycardia
a
c d
a d
35. In a patient with diabetes, bronchial asthma and hypertension which of the following drugs can be used?
Verapamil
Perindopril
Telmisartan
Propranolol
a
d
a d
36. An asymptomatic diabetic with family history of cardiomyopathy has no other risk factors. With respect to staging of heart failure, which of the following statement is correct
Stage A heart failure
Stage B heart failure
Stage C -New York Heart Association Class I
Stage C -New York Heart Association Class II
37. Systemic infections precipitate heart failure by
Increased body metabolism enforces hemodynamic burden on the heart
Increased heart rate worsens heart failure
Inflammatory cytokine affect automaticity
All infections cause myocarditis
a+b
c+d
a+d
38. Which of the following statements on heart failure are correct
Angiotensin 2 leads to vasoconstriction
Beta 2 receptors stimulation in juxta glamerular apparatus results in renin release
Aldosterone has no direct effects on myocardium
Angiotensin 2 causes remodelling of cardiac myocytes
a+b
c+d
a+d
39. Which of the following drugs cause dilatation of pulmonary vein
Nitroglycerine
Frusemide
Morphine
Sodium nitroprusside
a+b
c+d
a+d
40. Which of the following statements are correct
Sodium and water retention cause pulmonary congestion and edema in long term
Vasoconstriction increases BP but causes pump dysfunction by increase in after load
Hypertrophy unload individual muscle fibres and increase wall tension
Sympathetic stimulation increases heart rate and stroke volume and decreases energy expenditure
a
c+d
a d
41. Which of the following statements regarding cardiac transplantation are correct
5 year survival rate is about 70%
Immunosuppressants can lead to cancers on long term
Coronary atherosclerosis in transplanted heart is rare
Cyclosporine rarely causes renal dysfunction
a+b
c+d
a+c
b+d
42. Which of the following statements about Digoxin are correct
Digitoxicity occurs when serum digoxin levels are between 0.7 and 1.2 nanogram/mL
Digoxin is not useful when patients are symptomatic on diuretics and ACE inhibitors
Useful in patients with heart failure in atrial fibrillation
Has no mortality benefit in cardiac failure
a+b
c+d
a+d
43. Which of the following statements are correct regarding digitoxicity
Digitoxicity is rare with serum levels below 1.8 nanogram/mL
Half life of digoxin immunofab is shorter than that of digoxin
Lidocaine is not useful for digoxin induced ventricular arrhythmias
Electrical cardioversion is ideal
a+b
c+d
a+d
44. Which of the following statements about diuretic are correct
Metalazone acts on proximal convoluted tubule
Epilerone decreases potassium secretion by distal convoluted tubule
Continuous IV infusion of loop diuretics may overcome diuretic resistance
Metalazone should not be combined with loop diuretics
a+b
c+d
a d
a
45. Which of the following statements regarding treatment of cardiac failure are correct
For similar positive inotropic effect, dobutamine causes less increase in heart rate compared to dopamine
Inotropic effect of dobutamine is affected through norepinephrine release from myocardium
Ventricular arrhythmias are uncommon with long term dobutamine use
Dobutamine cause mild decrease in peripheral vascular resistance
a+b
c+d
a+d
46. Following are suggestive of renovascular hypertension except:
Abrupt onset of moderate hypertension
Hypertension in young
Presence of abdominal bruit
Marked fluctuations in blood pressure
47. Following are suggestive of endocrinal hypertension except:
Truncal obesity
Persistent hypokalemia
Malignant hypertension with papilledema
Thin skin
48. Following are true about gestational hypertension except:
Usually seen in primigravida in 20th week
Increase of blood pressure by 30/15 mm Hg or more above 140/80 mm Hg
Can progress to pre-eclampsia
Associated with ketonuria
49. Feature inappropriate for usual primary hypertension is
Onset before 20 years
Serum creatinine> 1.5 mg/100 mL
Abdominal bruit
Persistent hyperkalemia
50. Following is not true about involvement of heart in hypertension:
Left ventricular hypertrophy
10 -fold increase in coronary artery disease when blood pressure> 91 -105 mm Hg
Myocardial ischemia is common
Diastolic heart failure can occur
51. Following is not seen in Keith -Wagner Grade III retinopathy:
Papilledema
Copper -wire appearance
Silver -wire appearance
Cotton -wool exudates
52. Following condition requires rapid treatment of hypertension:
Acute aortic dissection
Stable angina
Intra -cerebral hemorrhage
Eclampsia
53. Following is not used in treating hypertensive emergency:
Sublingual nifedipine
Sodium nitroprusside infusion
LV. diazoxide
LV. enalapril
54. Following drug is used in treating pre -eclampsia:
Diuretics
ACE inhibitor
Methyldopa
Amlodepine
55. Phase 4 Korotkoff sound is
Tapping
Soft murmur
Loud murmur
Muffled
56. Korotkoff sounds are difficult to hear in
Aortic stenosis
Shock
Heart failure
All of the above
57. Isolated systolic hypertension is defined as a systolic BP more than:
140 mm Hg
150 mm Hg
160 mm Hg
170 mm Hg
58. Difference in BP between two arms is abnormal when it is more than
5mmHg
10mmHg
15 mmHg
20mmHg
59. Renal damage in hypertension include all except:
Microalbuminuria
Nephrosclerosis
Renal failure
None of the above
60. Treatment goal for hypertension in diabetes is less than:
120/80 mm Hg
125/85 mm Hg
130/80 mm Hg
140/80 mm Hg
61. One kg decrease in body weight is associated with a fall in BP by
1.2 mmHg
1.6 mmHg
2.0mmHg
2.5 mmHg
62. Following are not true about salt restriction in hypertension except:
No addition of salt during cooking
Avoid fast foods
To use half sodium half potassium salt if required
None of the above
63. Following is not used to treat hypertension after myocardial infarction:
ACEI
ARB
Diltiazem
Beta-blockers
64. Anti -hypertensives of choice in heart failure are all except
Diuretic
ACEI
ARB
Beta-blockers
65. Following ARB is/are shown to have better effect in renal hypertension:
Candesartan
Irbesartan
Both
None
66. Following arrhythmias can aggravate heart failure except:
Tachyarrhythmias
Marked bradycardia
Abnormal intraventricular conduction
None of the above
67. Following can precipitate heart failure except:
Pregnancy
Hypothyroidism
Hyperthyroidism
None of the above
68. According to Frank-Starling's law increased left ventricular volume leads to
Faster rate of relaxation
Lesser peak pressure
Slower rate of pressure rise
All of the above
69. Activation of RAAS leads to
Maintains blood pressure
Maintains perfusion of vital organs
Both
None
70. Following are true about natriuretic peptides except:
ANP is stored in atrium
CNP is located in vasculature
BNP is stored mainly in ventricular myocardium
None of the above
71. Angiotensin II
Is a powerful vasoconstrictor
Stimulates aldosterone release
Causes remodelling of the myocytes
All of the above
72. Commonest cause of right heart failure is
COPD
Left heart failure
Pulmonary hypertension
None of the above
73. In diastolic heart failure all are present except:
Ventricular relaxation is impaired
Ventricular filling pressure is elevated
Systemic venous congestion can occur
None of the above
74. All contribute to P.N.D. except:
Increased sympathetiC support
Increased intrathoracic pressure
Depression of respiratory center
None of the above
75. Hemoptysis in heart failure can result from:
Respiratory infection
Pulmonary embolism
Rupture of pulmonary v«enules
All of the above
76. Fatty streak is lesion:
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
77. Following category of patients will have more atherosclerotic plaques:
Smokers Hypertensives Hyperlipidemics All of the above MCC-003 14 78. Patients with diabetes will have: More short segment coronary lesions
Greater number of affected coronary vessels
Both of the above
None of the above
79. Basal portion of the interventricular septum is supplied by:
Posterior Descending artery
Left anterior descending artery
Left circumflex artery
None of the above
80. Most of the coronary blood flow occurs during:
Systole
Diastole
Both
None
81. Reverse cholesterol transport is mediated by
LDL
HDL
VLDL
IDL
82. Patient's risk of future event is based on
Presence of known CAD
Family history of premature CAD
Both
None
83. All are side -effects of statin except:
Elevation of transaminases
Myopathy
Mild gastrointestinal disturbances
None of the above
84. All are statin trials except:
WOSCOPS
HPS
HYVET
CARE
85. Unstable Angina is characterized by
Rest angina
Recent angina
Crescendo angina
None
86. Rest angina within 48 hrs. is Braunwald's
Class II
Class I
Class III
None
87. In a case of myocardial infarction Q-wave in the ECG appears in
Hyperacute phase
Acute phase
Subacute phase
None of the above
88. Most sensitive right precordial lead for detection of RV infarction is
V4R
V5R
V6R
None
89. Which of the following is not helpful in treating a child with a cyanotic spell
Knee chest position
Sedation
Oxygen
Beta-blockers
90. Primary PCI is indicated when
Availability of skilled PCI laboratory
Short transport time
Cardiogenic shock
All of the above
Other Question Papers
Departments
- Centre for Corporate Education, Training & Consultancy (CCETC)
- Centre for Corporate Education, Training & Consultancy (CCETC)
- National Centre for Disability Studies (NCDS)
- School of Agriculture (SOA)
- School of Computer and Information Sciences (SOCIS)
- School of Continuing Education (SOCE)
- School of Education (SOE)
- School of Engineering & Technology (SOET)
- School of Extension and Development Studies (SOEDS)
- School of Foreign Languages (SOFL)
- School of Gender Development Studies(SOGDS)
- School of Health Science (SOHS)
- School of Humanities (SOH)
- School of Interdisciplinary and Trans-Disciplinary Studies (SOITDS)
- School of Journalism and New Media Studies (SOJNMS)
- School of Law (SOL)
- School of Management Studies (SOMS)
- School of Performing Arts and Visual Arts (SOPVA)
- School of Performing Arts and Visual Arts(SOPVA)
- School of Sciences (SOS)
- School of Social Sciences (SOSS)
- School of Social Work (SOSW)
- School of Tourism & Hospitality Service Sectoral SOMS (SOTHSM)
- School of Tourism &Hospitality Service Sectoral SOMS (SOTHSSM)
- School of Translation Studies and Training (SOTST)
- School of Vocational Education and Training (SOVET)
- Staff Training & Research in Distance Education (STRIDE)
Subjects
- Cardio-Vascular Epidemiology
- Cardio-Vascular Related Disorders
- Common Cardio-Vascular Diseases-I
- Common Cardio-Vascular Diseases-II
- Common Cardio-Vascular Diseases-III
- Fundamentals of Cardio-Vascular System-I
- Fundamentals of Cardio-Vascular System-II