1. Which of the following antihypertensive drugs can cause gout?

ACE inhibitor

Calcium Channel Blocker

Beta Blocker

Thiazide

2. The drug of choice for systemic hypertension in a patient with benign hypertrophy of prostate.

Thiazide

Amlodipine

Doxazosin

Metaprolol

3. Which of the following thrombolytic agent administered as a single bolus dose?

Reteplase

Tenecteplase

Streptokinase

Urokinase

4. Which creatine Kinase iso enzyme is relatively specific for heart?

CK BB

CK MM

CK MB

All of the above

5. The optimal HBAIC Level for a diabetic patient:









6. All of the following antihypertensive drugs are useful for patients in heart failure except:

ACE inhibitor

Beta Blocker

Diuretics

Calcium Channel Blocker

7. Thiazide diuretics contribute to all except:

Hypouricemia

Hyponatraemia

Hypercalcemia

Hypercholesterolemia

8. In pre-eclampsia all the following features are seen except:

Protinuria

Pedal Oedema

B.P. 160/95 mmHg

Seizures

9. Which of the following drugs belongs to loop diuretics?

Bumetanide

Spironolactone

Chlorthalidone

Triamterine

10. The target B.P. in diabetes mellitus patient is

<110/80 mmHg

<140/90 mmHg

<120/80 mmHg

<130/80 mmHg

11. Which is the commonest cause of right sided heart failure?

COPD

Pulmonary embolism

Infective endocarditis

Secondary to left sided heart failure

12. Nitroglycerine is indicated in all the following conditions except one:

Bradycardia <50/min

Ongoing chest discomfort

Control of hypertension

Management of pulmonary congestion

13. Trepopnoea refers to

Orthopnea due to bronchial asthma

Dyspnoea while sleeping

Dyspnoea on sitting up

Dyspnoea in one lateral decubitus position

14. ECG features of pulmonary thromboembolism are all the following except:

RBBB

51 Q3T3 Pattern

Ventricular arrhythenias

ST-T changes in anterior and inferior leads

15. Framingham criteria for diagnosis of heart failure includes all the following except:

Central venons pressure> 16 cm H20

Circulation time 25 sec

PND

Acute pulmonary oedema

16. Drugs used in Hypertensive crisis include all of the following except:

Fendoloparn

Frusemide

Phentolamine

Ketamine

17. Pulsus paradoxus is characteristic feature of

Hypertensive encephalopathy

Acute pulmonary embolism

Acute LVF

Cardiac tamponade

18. All are true about Acute MI except:

Most Common in the evening around midnight

Commonest cause of death in the first hour is VF

Pain is the most common complaint

Triggered by physical exercise, emotion

19. BP levels of 140/90 mmHg can be classified as

Stage I HTN

Stage II HTN

Pre-Hypertension

Isolated systolic HTN

20. All are risk factors for CAD except:

Age

Sedentary lifestyle

Tobacco Consumption

Marfanoid habitus

21. Symptoms of SOB even at rest suggests NYHA class:

Class IV

Class III

Class I

Class II

22. Which of the following drugs cause dilation of Pulmonary vein?

Nitroglycerine

Frusemide

Morphine

Sodium Nitrotrusside









23. The earliest enzyme to rise in plasma after acute MI is

CKMB

Myoglobin

Tropohin I

Tropohin T

24. All are absolute contraindication for thrombolysis in Acute MI except:

In a prior in bacranial bleed.

Ischemic Stroke three months.

Presence of intracranial tumours.

Active peptic ulcer.

25. Adenosine IV is usually indicated in

AF

VT

Atrial flutter

SVT

26. All are features of acute pulmonary oedema except:

Bat's wing edema in chest X-Ray

Pulsus paradoxus

Pinky frothy sputum

Crepitations over lung fields

27. Following statements about cyanotic spells are true except:

Commonly seen below 2 years.

Murmur becomes loud.

Tachypnea is present.

Cyanosis deepens as spell progresses.

28. Following are side effects of HMGCOA reductase inhibitors except:

Neurological Symptoms.

Liver function test abnormalities.

Myopathy.

Hypothyroidism.

29. On chest X-Ray, alveolar edema suggests pulmonary venous pressure is likely to be

12-18 mmHg

35 mmHg

25-34 mmHg

19-24 mmHg

30. Following drugs may be used in gestational hypertension except:

ACE inhibitors

Hydralazine

Methyldopa

Beta blockers

31. As per JNC VII classification of Blood Pressure, normal B.P. is

120/80 mmHg

130/80 mmHg

130/90 mmHg.

120/80 mmHg

32. 37 years old patient previous Myocardial infarction and LVEF who has never shown signs and symptoms of heart failure earlier will be classified in which stage of heart failure as per ACC/AHA guidelines.

Stage A

Stage B

Stage C

Stage D

33. Which of the following drug belongs to thiazide group of diuretics?

Amloride

Torsemide

Eplerenone

Indapamide

34. Which of the condition causes heart failure with volume overload

Aortic stenosis

Hypertension

Co-arctation of aorta

Mitral regurgitation

35. In patients with hypertension with diabetes mellitus which of the anti hypertensive medications are first choice

Calcium channel blocker

ACE I

Diuretics

Beta blockers

36. All of the following pharmacologic agents are direct thrombin inhibitors except:

Hirudin

Hirulog

Warfarin

Ximelagatran

37. Which of the following drug is used for ventricular arrhythmias due to digoxin?

Amiodarone

Phenytoin

Quinidine

Propafenone

38. All the following measures are done in right ventricular myocardial infarction except one:

Early thrombolysis

Early use of nitrates

Maintain AV synchrony in case of high grade block

Maintain Right ventricular preload

39. Commonest cause of secondary hypertension is because of

Coarctation of aorta.

Pheochromocytoma.

Cushing's syndrome.

Renal parenchyma disease.

40. Following are features of Cushing's syndrome except:

Rough Skin

Round Face

Truncal Obesity

Loss of Weight

41. Calcium Channel Blockers can cause all except:

Hyponatremia

Pedal Oedema

Gingival hyperplasia

Constipation

42. Following are some of the side effects of ACE-inhibitors except:

Pedal oedema

Hyperkalemia

Angioneurotic oedema

Renal agenesis in foetus

43. Increased BNP -type Natriuretic peptide) concentrations are most conunonly found in following:

Obesity

Myocardial infarction

Septic Shock

Heart Failure

44. In the management of acute pUlmonary oedema because of left ventricular failure, following are recommended except

IV Metaprolol

IV Morphine

IV Furosemide

100 percent oxygen

45. Aggressive lipid lowering drug treatment of persons at various risk levels reduces CAD morbidity and mortality, following are some of the primary prevention trials except:

The west of Scotland coronary prevention study.

The Air force/Texas coronary atherosclerosis prevention study.

The Heart prevention study.

The Scandinavian Simvastatin Survival Study.

46. As per JNC VII classification stage 2 Hypertension systolic B.P. is

>160 mmHg

>140 mmHg

>120 mmHg

>130 mmHg

47. White coat hypertension systolic blood pressure can go up to

27-37 mmHg

17-27 mmHg

7-17 mmHg

0-7 mmHg

48. Commonest cause of secondary hypertension:

Ischemic heart disease

COPD

Renal parenchymal disease

Cirrhosis of liver

49. In pregnancy hypertension associated with proteinuria and oedema it is called as

Eclampsia

Pre -eclampsia

Cushing's syndrome

TIA

50. Hypertensive patients Echo cardiography shows:

Increase in thickness of LV

Decrease in thickness of LV

No change in LV thickness

None of the above

51. In hypertensive patients purpose of examining abdomen are following except:

Abnormal Kidney masses

Polycystic Kidneys

Abdominal aortic aneurysm

Crohn's disease

52. Keith Wagner classification Grade 2

Narrowing of arteries giving rise to copper wire appearance.

Narrowing of arteries giving rise to copper wire appearance, arteriovenous nipping where the arteries cross the veins.

Narrowing of arteries, copper wire appearance, arteriovenous nipping, superficial flame shaped and deep dot like haemorrhages and cotton wool exudates.

In addition to all the above, papilloedema.

53. Normal Blood Pressure is:

SBP 160 DBP 100

SBP 120-139 DBP 80-89

SBP 120 DBOP 80

SBP 140-159 DBP 90-99

54. Instrument used to record B.P. is

Thermometer

Glucometer

Sphygmomanometer

Otoscope

55. What is the commonest abnormality related to hypertension in the aorta?

Abdominal aneurysm

Polycystic Kidney

Spleenic aneurysm

Cholecystitis

56. Target B.P. in Patients with Diabetes or renal disease is

120/80

140/90

130/80

140/80

57. Non-pharmacological management for Hypertension are all the following except:

Lowering excess body weight

Restriction of dietary sodium

Cessation of smoking

Amlodepin

58. Loop diuretics are all the following except:

Bumetanide

Furosemide

Torsemide

Indapamide

59. In patients with hypertension and stable angina the drug of choice:

Beta blocker

ARBS

CCB

Diuretics

60. Which is the cardinal symptom of left ventricular failure?

Chest Pain

Dyspnoea

Fatigue

Haemoptysis

61. Name one condition that can impose a pressure overload on the heart:

Hypertension

Aortic regurgitation

Mitral regurgitation

Ventricular septal defect

62. In heart failure patient liver is enlarged and tender and pulsatile in the presence of severe:

Mitral regurgitation

Tricuspid regurgitation

Aortic regurgitation

Pulmonary regurgitation

63. When the pulmonary venous pressure exceeds 25 mmHg, alveolar oedema occurs the condition called as

Acute pulmonary oedema

Myocardial infarction

Pulmonary embolism

Aortic dissection

64. Framingham major criteria for diagnosing heart failure are all the following except:

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea

Rales

S3 gallop

Nocturnal cough

65. In pulmonary oedema adventitious sounds are:

Mainly rhonchi and occasional crepitation

Mainly crepitations and occasional rhonchi

Crepitations alone

Rhonchi alone

66. In management of acute pulmonary oedema patient should be in following position:

Propped up position

Prone position

Supine position

Left lateral position

67. Side effects of potassium sparing diuretics are all the following except:

Hypokalemia

Hyperkalemia

Renal dysfunction

Gynaecomastia

68. In heart failure patients following drugs have shown to reduce mortality except:

Calcium channel blockers

Beta blockers

Aldosterone antagonist

Angiotensin Converting Enzyme Inhibitors (ACEI)

69. Contraindications for beta blockers are all the following except:

Advanced heart block

Reversible airways obstructive disease

Episodic decompensation

Myocardial infarction

70. Functional murmurs can occur in heart failure are

Functional mitral regurgitation and tricuspid regurgitation murmurs can appear with ventricular dilatation

Aortic regurgitation and pulmonary regurgitation and pulmonary regurgitational murmurs

Mitral stenosis and aortic stenosis murmurs

Austin -Flint murmurs

71. What are the auscultatory signs over the chest in acute pulmonary oedema?

Auscultation reveals crepitations and occasionally rhonchi

Pericardial Knock

Mid-diastolic murmur

Pericardial rub

72. What are the features of acute pulmonary oedema on the chest X-Ray?

Butterfly or bat wing appearance

Wedge shaped hypoperfused shadows

Honey comb appearance

Cannon ball appearance

73. Phosphodiesterase inhibitors side effect is

Leucocytosis

Anaemia

Thrombocytopenia

Leucocytopenia

74. What is the percentage of 1 year survival rate after cardiac transplantation?

10-20%

30-40%

60-70%

80-90%

75. Roughly how many percentage untreated hypertensives die of heart problems?

10%

20%

50%

80%

76. Which diuretics have been accepted as the primary foundation of anti hypertensive therapy?

Loop diuretics

Potassium sparing diuretics

Thiazide diuretics

Aldosterone receptor blocker

77. Patients with heart failure are at a higher risk of developing which of the following condition?

Tender Liver

Myocarditis

Pericardial effusion

Malaria

78. Atrial Natritretic Peptide is stored in

Mainly in Kidneys

Mainly in Atrium

Mainly in Brain

Mainly in Liver

79. The commonest cause of right sided heart failure is

Right sided failure

Left sided failure

Both sided

None of the above

80. Paroxysmal Nocturnal dyspnoea means:

Here the patient before going to sleep for some time, suddenly gets up with chest pain.

Here the patient, after going to sleep for some time, suddenly gets up with dyspnea and suffocation and sits upright gasping for breath.

Night sweating

Nocturnal angina

81. In diastolic dysfunction echocardiology generally has:

Right ventricular hypertrophy

Left ventricular hypertrophy

Right atrial enlargement

Left atrial enlargement

82. Large randomized trials with beta blockers in heart failure patients have shown morality reduction to the tune of

75%

50%

90%

35%

83. Currently available only orally active positive inotropic agent is

Dopamine

Dobutamine

Amrinone

Digitalis

84. In digitalis toxicity following drugs should be avoided except:

Quinidine

Amiodarone

Propafenone

Lidocaine

85. Calcium channel blockers are not recommended for the treatment of CHF because:

Positive inotropic effects

Negative inotropic effects

All the above

None of the above

86. Patients with advanced structural heart disease and marked symptoms of Heart failure at rest despite maximal medical therapy and who require specialized interventions. This belongs which stage in Heart failure?

Stage A

Stage B

Stage C

Stage D

87. MDCT Coronary calcium Scoring shows Coronary calcification which is earliest sign of

Pulmonary embolism

Coronary artery disease

Pleural effusion

Myocarditis

88. Elevated jugular venous pressure reflects raised

Left atrial pressure

Right atrial pressure

Right ventricular pressure

Left ventricular pressure

89. By echocardiography Severe Mitral Stenosis means MVOA by planimetry is

<2cm

>2cm

<1.5cm2

>1.5cm2

90. Hypokalemia which wave can be seen in EKG

T Wave

P Wave

U Wave

Q Wave