Exam Details

Subject
Paper
Exam / Course
Department food and drugs administration
Organization maharashtra public service commission
Position food safety officer
Exam Date 27, March, 2016
City, State maharashtra,


Question Paper

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1. State Bank of India (SBIllaunched and inaugurated India's first start-up focussed bank branch called as

SBI Startup


SEI InCube


SEI Progressive


SEI Venture


2. For the first time since 1950, a foreign army contingent marched down the Rajpath during the Republic Day parade on 26th January, 2016. To which country did this army troop belong?

China


France


Germany


Denmark


3. Odisha Government announced a new scheme 'Anwesha'. According to this scheme

SC and ST women would be enrolled into various employment schemes of the State.


SC and ST elderly people would be given pension.


SC and ST children would annually be enrolled into Standard I in leading private schools in urban areas ofthe State.


SC and ST youth would annually be enrolled into leading private companies in urban areas ofthe State.


4. Consider the following statements regarding Shrikant Bahulkar
a.
He is the recipient ofthe Bhasha Samman Award ofSahitya Akademi.

b.
He is the Honorary Secretary and Scholar at Bhandarkar Oriental Research Institute.

c.
He has made valuable contribution in the area ofDogri literature.


Which ofthe statements given above are correct?

aandb


band c


a and c
a, b andc 5. Consider the following statements regarding Serena Williams:
a.
She is an American professional tennis player who is ranked No. 01 in women's singles tennis.

b.
She became the world No. 01 for the first time on July 2002.

c.
She has won four Olympic gold medals.

d.
In December 2015, she was named Sportperson of the Year by the Sports Illustrated magazine.


Which of the statements given above are correct?

aandb


band c


candd


andd


6. Consider the following statements:
a.
Three Urban Development Schemes, viz., AMRUT, Smart Cities Mission and Housing for All (Urban) have been launched.

b.
AMRUT Scheme aims to develop civic infrastructure in 500 cities and towns having population of one lakh and above.

c.
Smart Cities Mission has an aim to build 100 smart cities; each selected city would get Central assistance of 100 crore per year for five years.


Which of the above statements is/are correct

Only a


aandb


aandc


All the above


7. Which one ofthe following statements about BRAHMOS is not correct

It is a short range supersonic cruise missile.


It is a joint venture between India and France.


It can be launched from ships, aircraft or land.


It has a maximum range of290 km.


Ciillilttldl unirr I SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
8. Recently, which of the following has been declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court ofIndia

National Judicial Appointments Commission


National Green Tribunal


NITI Aayog


Collegium System


9. Which one of the following statements is not correct

Vidya Devi Bhandari was elected as Nepal's first woman President by the Parliament.


54-year-old Bhandari secured 327 votes against 214 votes of her rival Kul Bahadur Gurung.


She was the President of CPN-UML (Co=unist Party of Nepal-Unified Marxist Leninist).


She succeeded incumbent Ram Baran Yadav who was elected as the country's first President in 2008.


10. Consider the following statements:
a.
The United Nations reached an agreement on a new 'Sustainable Development Agenda'.

b.
This agenda is for the next 25 years.

c.
The draft agreement outlines 17 goals with 169 specific targets.

d.
The agreement calls for eradicating poverty and hunger, achieving gender equality and taking urgent action to combat climate change.


Which ofthe statements given above is/are false?

a


b



candd


None of the above


7 6 5 4


L07 6 A
11. Select the minimum number of colours that are sufficient for colouring the areas of the accompanying image such that there would not be same colour on the two sides of any curve.


12. A statement is given and a and b are assumptions related to it. Select the option that is true with respect to the given statements.
The king has decided to levy tax on the amount payable for funding drought relief programmes.
a.
The king does not have sufficient money to fund drought reliefprogrammes.

b.
The amount collected by way of surcharge may be adequate to fund these drought reliefprogrammes.



Only a implies


Both a and b imply


Only b implies


Neither a nor b implies


13. Which letter replaces the question mark?
N 250 R
T 497 Y
Y 396 P
K 127 L
G 176


"IJ1TT /SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
14. Which alphabet will replace the question mark?

Q
F
V
H

15. Which number does not belong to the group? W M n 38
46 83 73 38

16. Two trains running in opposite directions cross a man standing on the platform in 27 seconds and 17 seconds respectively and they cross each other in 23 seconds. The ratio of their speeds is
3:2 1:3
3:4 4:3
17. Which figure will replace the question mark?


None ofthese





18. How many single-coloured triangles are present in the accompanying diagram?

36
40
56
60

19. Select the option in which frame a is embedded.






20. Ani and Kuni decided to meet at a museum that is towards south of their housing society. Ani started at 12:00 noon at the speed of 60 kph. Kuni starts her journey after 15 minutes with the speed of 65 kph. Select the time at which they will meet.

3:00pm


3:10 pm


3:15 pm


3:20 pm


21. Which one of the following statements about 'Secular State' is not correct?

The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on the ground of religion.


The State shall endeavour to secure for all the citizens a Uniform Civil Code.


All persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice and propagate any religion.


All persons shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions oftheir choice.


U!PTT I SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
22. Match the following:
a. Right to Constitutional Remedies I. Article 24
b. Abolition of untouchability II. Article 21
c. Protection of life and personal liberty III. Article 17
d. Prohibition of employment of children in factories IV. Article 32

a b c d
I II III IV
II I III IV
III IV I II
IV III II I

23. Which ofthe following is/are included in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
a.
Prohibition oftraffic in human beings and forced labour.

b.
Prohibition of consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of other drugs which are injurious to health.


Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a only


b only


Both a and b


Neither a nor b


24. The President of India is elected by an Electoral College consisting of

Members of Parliament and State Legislature


Elected members of Parliament and elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies


Elected members of Lok Sabha and members of Rajya Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies


None of the above


25. What is correct about State Legislative Council
a. Its tenure is 6 years.
b. The tenure of its members is 6 years.
c. members are elected by local institutions.
d. members are elected by Legislative Assembly. 6
e. 12 members are nominated by the Governor.
c and d
d and e
a and b
b only

26. GIS stands for

Geographical Information System


Graphical Information System


Graphic Investigation System


Geographical Investigation System


27. In IPv6, the in the base header restricts the life time of a datagram.

verSIOn


next-header


hop limit


payload length


28. "Punarjani", one ofthe media lab Asia projects is alan

Ontology building and management tool


Web portal for empowering the disabled


Assessment tool for mentally retarded children


None ofthe above


A 11 L07
29. XML stands for
Extensible Markup Language Extra Markup Language Extensible Markup Link Extra Markup Link

30. According to IT Act, 2000, Clause 65, punishment for tampering with computer source documents under observation is

imprisonment up to 3 years, or a fine which may be extended up to 2 lakh rupees, or both.


Imprisonment up to 2 years, or a fine which may be extended up to 3 lakh rupees, or both.


imprisonment up to 1 year, or a fine which may be extended up to 2 lakh rupees, or both.


imprisonment up to 2 years, or a fine which may be extended up to one lakh rupees, or both.


31. What is not included in 'Information' under the RTI Act, 2005

Opinion


Data Material


File Noting


Contracts


32. Consider the following statements:
a.
State Chief Information Commissioner shall hold office for a term of 7 years and shall be eligible for reappointment.

b.
State Chieflnformation Commissioner shall hold office till he attains the age of 70 (seventy) years.



Both a and b are correct


Both a and b are wrong


a is correct b is wrong


b is correct a is wrong


33. A complaint is liable to be received by the State/Central Information Commission from a person
a.
who has been refused the information that was requested.

b.
who has not submitted an information request to PIO.

c.
who thinks that the fees charged are unreasonable.


Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

b only


a and b only


a and conly


band c


34. Where the Central or State Information Commission is of the opinion that the PIO has given incorrect, incomplete or misleading information knowingly, then it shall impose a penalty the total amount ofwhich shall not exceed

"30,000 (thirty thousand)


"50,000 (fifty thousand)


"2,50,000 lacs fifty thousand)


25,000 (twenty-five thousand)


35. From amongst the following which statement(s) is/are correct about the Right to Information Act
a.
This Act does not create any offence on the part of citizens.

b.
It rather created the wilful failure on the part of the Public Information Officer a punishable offence.



Only a


Only b


Both a and b


Neither a nor b


itil'll'fllcfl JI1lTT J SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
A 13 L07
36. To whom does the State Human Rights Commission submit an annual report Governor of the State President ofJndia State Legislature State Government

37. Which ofthe following is not a political Right?

Right to vote Right to criticize the Government


Right to own property Right to file petition


38. Under the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955, the person can be punished for enforcing social disabilities on the ground of untouchability with regard to
a.
access to any shop, public restaurant, hotel or place of entertainment.

b.
the practising of any profession or carrying on of any occupation, trade or business or employment in any job.

c.
the use or access to any private conveyance.

d.
the use ofjewellery and finery.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct:




Onlya andb


Only band d


Only band c


Only b


39. According to the provisions of the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, a child is a person who has not completed
16 years of age 18 years of age
14 years of age 21 years of age
40. Which kind of property of certain persons can be ordered to be forfeited by special courts under S.C. and S.T. <Protection of Atrocities) Act, 1989

Any movable or immovable property belonging to that person.


Any movable or immovable property or both belonging to the family of that person.


Any movable or immovable property or both belonging to that person which has been used for the commission ofthat offence.


Any movable property belonging to that person which has been used for the commission of that offence.


L07 41. 14 The correct IUPAC name for the given structure is A
CHO
OH
3-hydroxy-2-methylpent-5-al-ene 3-hydroxy-4-methylpent-4-en-1-al 3-hydroxy-4-methylpent-1-al-4-ene 3-hydroxy-2-methylpent-1-en-5-al

42. Which of the following is the best method for preparation of common detergent sodium dodecyl benzene sulphonate

0
C12H24 NaOH
(Al Oleum Anhy. AlCI3, HCI
@et
C12H26
Oleum NaOH

D

NaOH
Oleum)


CI
NOH C12H26
Oleum) Anhy. AlCI3, HCI
iWIT I SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
48. In the periodic table, to which period and group, does the non-metallic element which exists in liquid state at room temperature belong?

2nd period -1st group


4th period -17th group


2nd period -16th group


5th period group


44. The correct order ofincreasing stability ofcarboniwn ion is

tertiary> secondary> primary


primary> secondary> tertiary


secondary> tertiary> primary


primary> tertiary> secondary


45. Match the columns:
Group] Group II
a. Surfactants 1. Alkylaryl sulphonates
b. Dye intermediates II. Benzene
c. Lacquers ill. Cellulose acetate
d. Solvents IV. Ethyl acetate
V. Anthracene
a b c d
III V III,IV II, IV
I II,V III II, IV
I IV III,IV II, IV
III V III II, IV
"lIi'l'llllT VWIT I SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK P.T.O.

46. A compound C7HSO is insoluble in water, dil HCI and aqueous NaHC03 but dissolves in dil NaOH. When X is treated with bromine water, it is converted rapidly into a compound offormula C7H50Br3' The structure ofX is
OH OH

"I
cO OCH3
CH3
OH
6H



3
" CH3
47. Three flasks Band C respectively contain 0·1 m and 0·1 N aqueous HCI solutions, prepared at 40°C. Considering the density of water 1 g1cm3 at which ofthe following statements is/are correct?
a.
Concentration of all three solutions is exactly the same.

b.
Concentration of HCL in flask A and flask C is exactly the same.

c.
Concentration of HCL in flask B is lesser than concentration of HCL in flasks A andC.

d.
No two flasks have HCI of exactly the same concentration.



a only


Both b and c


conly


d only


iIFTT I SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
A 17 L07
48. What is the major product in the following reaction?
CH3 -CH2 CH2 Br2CH3 130°C hv
CH3 CH2 CH -CH2Br I Br
CH3 CH2 CH -Br I CH3
CH3 I CH3 -Br I CH3


49. The correct IUPAC name for the following compound is
Fy--y0H


2-chloro-5-fluoro-1-hydroxybenzene


1-hYdroxy-2-chloro-5-fluorobenzene


1-fluoro-3-hydroxy-4-chlorobenzene


2-chloro-5-fluorophenol


50. Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of their UV absorption maxima:
a.
Ethylene b. Naphthalene

c.
Anthracene d. 3-Butadiene


Choose the correct order.







51. The most susceptible to oxidation in a protein molecule are the SH groups of which amino acid?

Cysteine Valine


Threonine Glycine


52. The most susceptible mineral lost during cooking of food on the basis of presence as free ions is

Calcium Iron


Potassium None of the above


53. The most common adulterant used in coffee is
Chicory Tamarind
Date seed powder All ofthe above

54. Parabens, as a group of microbial preservatives, are ineffective especially against one of the following microorganisms:

Gram-negative bacteria Gram-positive bacteria


Molds Yeasts


55. Which of the prepackaging treatments is recommended for potatoes, sweet potatoes, onions and garlic prior to storage or marketing?

Precooling Curing


Waxing Degreening


56. A food product process condition coined by contamination, mixing and processing under uncontrolled conditions, and rendering it unfit for consumption is referred as

Fortification Adulteration


Enrichment None of the above


57. An article offood shall be deemed to be non-adulterated if

any natural constituent is removed therefrom.


any artificial colour is added thereto more than pennissible limits.


it contains any prohibited preservative.


two or more articles offood (primary) are mixed together.


Vi1'TT I SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
A 19 L07
58. V,'hich of the following are not conjugated proteins? Glycoproteins Scleroproteins Phosphoproteins Haemoglobins

59. Among the biological hazards, which of the bacteria in food causes infection and not intoxication?

Escherichia coli Clostridium botulinum


Staphylococcus aureus Clostridium perfringens


60. Which one of the following acids is used to detect vanaspati adulteration in pure ghee?

Concentrated sulphuric acid


Dilute sulphuric acid


Concentrated hydrochloric acid


Dilute hydrochloric acid


61. Fruits and vegetables based soups and sauces are categorized as

low acid foods medium acid foods


acid foods high acid foods


62, The post harvest transportation and storage of banana for distant marketing with minimum chilling injury is carried out at what temperatures?




11-13'C 14-17'C


63. The difference in UHT pasteurized milk and extended shelf life treated pasteurized milk is of

Temperature ofheating Holding time


Microbial filtration None ofthe above


64. Which one of the following is not a physical hurdle used in preservation of foods?

Electromagnetic energy Modified atmospheric storage


Ultrasonication Smoking


65. The critical electric field strength in Pulsed Electric Field processing for cell wall rupture ofE. coli should be

1-2kVlcm 10-14 kV/cm


15 -20 kVlcm .24-28 kV/cm


66. In the risk analysis of food additives, the JECFA secretariat should normally give first priority to compounds

that have been assigned a temporary ADI or equivalent.


food additives or groups of additives that have previously beeen evaluated and for which an ADI Or equivalent has been assigned.


food additives that have not been previously evaluated.


None of the above.


67. India has been a member of the Codex A1imentarius Commission since the year
1964 1974 1984 1994
68. The core function of the National Codex Committee ofIndia is

maximizing the opportunities for development of industry and expansion of international trade.


co-operation with joint FAOIWHO food standard programme.


to study codex documents.


to co-operate with other local/regional or foreign organizations dealing with activities relating to food standardization.


69. What is the function of Shadow Committee of NCC-India

To advise the NCCPINCC on the implications of various food standardization, food quality and safety issues


To follow the codex agenda of the relevant subsidiary body and provide inputs to the government to assist in ensuring quality and safety of food to the consumer


Both and


None of the above


lIiWllT c6Jill'l1ldl U!l1IT I SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
A 21 L07
70. CAC standards notified safe moisture content of quality grape raisins is
13% 15%
18% 20%

71. The genetically modified food crops available in the international market are designed to have the

Resistance to insect damage


Resistance to viral damage


Tolerance to certain herbicides


All ofthe above


72. Organic fruit ripening is authenticated by the stimulatory action of one of the following gaseous hormones:

Ethylene Nitrogen


Acetylene None of the above


73. The US Food and Drug Administration though insists that GM foods are safe, but studies have shown that these are linked with

Increased food allergens


Increased gastrointestinal problems


Both and


None of the above


74. The Ministry of Consumer Affairs made it mandatory to label packaged food from one of the following cut-off date as

1 January, 2013


26 January, 2013


1 February, 2013


15 February, 2013 'ffi'ITT I SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK PTO
l07 22 A
75.· The irradiation dose recommended for sprout inhibition in bulbs and tubers is Less than 1 kGy 1-10 kGy More than 10 kGy None of the above
76. Which one of the following processes records uniform heating to stabilize texture of food products? Contact freeze drying Accelerated freeze drying Radiant freeze drying All ofthe above

77. Which one is the poorest method of food freezing? Freezing in cold air blast

Freezing with liquid air, N2 or CO2


Freezing in still air


Freezing by direct immersion offood in a cooling medium


78. Which one of the following functional ingredients improves gastrointestinal health and also calcium absorption
Fructo-oligosaccharides

Daidzein


Sterols


PUFA


79. Which one of the following foods is not the functional food?

Dietary fiber


Probiotics


Omega-3 polyunsaturated fatty acids


Pills or capsules or sachets of foods as a part of everyday diet


SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
A 23 L07
80. Which one of the following nanotechnology applications justifies potential in food corporate sector? Nanoencapsulation Nanocomposites and food packaging Nanosensors and nanosieves All ofthe above the bubbling

81. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India shall consist of a chairperson and expert members up to

15


20


22


24


82. Which one of the following Sections of FSSA is empowered to issue prohibition order?

32


33


34


35


83. Which one is not the function of Commissioner of Food Safety of the State?

To ensure an efficient and uniform implementation of standards of food safety


To sanction prosecution for offences punishable with imprisonment


To prohibit sale of any article of food for one year


To appoint Food Safety Officer


84. Which one of the following ex-officio members is designated as Chairman of Central Committee for Food Standards?

The Director General, Health Services, Ministry of Health


The Director General, ICAR, New Delhi


The Director, Central Food Laboratory


None of the above


85. The penalty for possessing an adulterant which is injurious to health ofconsumers is

n Lakh


2 Lakh


5 Lakh


no Lakh


86. The microbial hazard caused by Listeria monocytogenes is categorized as

Severe hazard


Moderate hazard


Low hazard


None of the above


87. A step at which control can be applied and is essential to prevent or eliminate a food safety hazard or reduce it to an acceptable level is called as

Control measure


Corrective action


Critical Control Point


Critical limit


88. Which one of the following is not a constituent part ofthe cleaning programme?

Specifying areas, items of equipments and utensils to be cleaned


Specifying method and frequency of cleaning


Specifying monitoring arrangements


Removing gross debris from equipments


89. Which one is not the food safety HACCP based principle standard operating procedure developed by National Food Service Management Institute in conjunction with USDA and FDA?

Cleaning and sanitizing of food contact surfaces


Controlling of time and temperature during food preparation


Maintenance of personal hygiene


Keeping of record


I SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
A 25 L07
90. Which one of the International Organization for systems is adopted by BIS as such? Standardization driven
ISIISO 22000 2005
BISIISO 22000 2005
ISIIISO 22000 2005
None of the above

91. Which clause of ISO 9001 2000 covers the requirements of the organization to actually set up a quality management system, and broadly sets out the activities associated with this?

Clause 4.1


Clause 4.2



Clause 5.1


Clause 5.2


92. Which one of the effective record keeping documentation systems compensates with HACCP?

Records of hazards and their control methods


Records of monitoring of safety requirements


Records of action taken to correct potential problems


All of the above


93. What does ISO 22000 bring to the HACCP method?

Prerequisite programmes and Operational prerequisite programmes


Critical Control Points


Validation


All ofthe above


94. Which one of the following processes reduces contaminating bacterial load to human health safety level?

Cleaning


Disinfection


Sterilization


Sanitization


95. The prerequisite programmes in the food industry include

Good Manufacturing Practices


Good Hygienic Practices


Both and


None of the above


96. The State Consumer Protection Councils established as per the Consumer Protection Act shall meet as and when necessary but not less than meetings shall be held every year.
1

2


3


4


97. The Consumer Protection Act was enacted during the year

1976


1986


1996


2006
lI>fiUlT 1'l1 1&1 UIT'IT I SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
98. Match the following:
a. Food Additives Sectional Committee I. FAD-15
b. c. d. Fish and Fisheries Products Sectional Committee Food Hygiene, Safety Management and other Systems Sectional Committee Slaughter House and Meat Industry Sectional Committee II. III. IV. FAD -18 FAD-8 FAD -12
a b c d
IV I II III
III IV I II
II I I II III IV IV III

99. The Central Government has powers under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955 to control

Production of food


Supply offood


Distribution offood


All ofthe above


100. The Section 3 of ECA, 1955 empowers the Government to

Control production, supply, distribution, trade and commerce of essential commodities.


Control distribution, trade and commerce of essential food commodities only.


Control production and supply of non-food essential commodities.


None ofthe above



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