1. Which one of the following is
selective herbicide?

a. Paraquat

b. Glyphosate

c. Atrazine

d. Diquat

2. Zygogramma bicolorata insect is used to control:

a. Parthenium hysterophorus

b. Echinochloa colonum

c. Lantana camara

d. Orobanche cernua

3. How is Fluchloralin applied

a. Pre-emergence

b. Post-emergence

c. Pre-plant incorporation

d. Late post emergence

4. Which of the following is parasitic weed of lucerne?

a. Cuscuta spp.

b. Avena fatua

c. Cichorium intybus

d. Cyperus rotundus

5. Mulching is an example of:

a. Chemical weed control method

b. Biological weed control method

c. Mechanical weed control method

d. None of the above 2

6. Maximum number of seeds per plant are produced by the weed plant:

a. Amarnathus spp.

b. Argemone mexicana

c. Cuscuta spp.

d. Chenopodium album

7. Which of the following is contact, non-selective and zero persistent herbicide?

a. Fluchloralin

b. 4-D

c. Atrazine

d. Paraquat

8. Effective weed control measure of crop associated and crop bound weeds is?

a. Intercropping

b. Mulching

c. Hoeing Weeding

d. Crop rotation

9. Example of aquatic weed is?

a. Eichhornia crassipes

b. Eleusine indica

c. Circium arvense

d. Amaranthus viridis

10. Example of biennial weed is?

a. Cynodon dactyton

b. Chenopodium spp.

c. Cyperus esculentus

d. Cirsium vulgare

11. Field capacity is the of soil water availability to plants.

a. Lower

b. Middle

c. Upper

d. All

12. Available Water Holding Capacity is:

a. Field Capacity-Permanent Wilting Point

b. Permanent Wilting Point-Hygroscopic Water

c. Field Capacity-Hygroscopic Water

d. Field Capacity-Ultimate Wilting Point

13. Which criterion of irrigation scheduling is more suitable and convenient to farmers?

a. Soil moisture tension

b. Pan evaporation

c. Water potential of plant

d. Critical growth stages

14. Irrigation Requirement can be obtained by:

a. IR Water requirement

b. IR Water requirement Effective rainfall

c. IR Water requirement (Effective rainfall Contribution from ground water table)

d. IR Effective rainfall (Water requirement Contribution from ground water table)

15. Limits of boron in irrigation waters for semi-tolerant crops varies between:

a. 0.3 1.0 ppm

b. 1.0 3.0 ppm

c. 2.0 4.0 ppm

d. 4.0 6.0 ppm

16. Most important critical growth stage of wheat for irrigation is:

a. Crown root initiation

b. Tillering

c. Jointing

d. Grain filling

17. Water requirement of maize crop is:

a. 100 to 500 mm

b. 500 to 800 mm

c. 800 to 1500 mm

d. 1500 to 1800 mm

18. Single Super Phosphate contains per cent sulphur:

a. 16

b.18

c. 12

d.20

19. Which one fertilizer contains secondary nutrient other than primary nutrients?

a. Ammonium nitrate

b. Urea

c. DAP

d. Ammonium sulphate

20. Which nutrient is essential to increase protein content in cereals?

a. Phosphorus

b. Nitrogen

c. Potassium

d. Calcium

21. Which one of the following nutrient stimulates flowering and seed formation?

a. Nitrogen

b. Phosphorus

c. Sulphur

d. Calcium

22. Khaira disease in rice is caused by deficiency of:

a. Nitrogen

b. Sulphur

c. Iron

d. Zinc

23. Which nutrient is not a constituent of chlorophyll but helps in chlorophyll?

a. Phosphorus

b. Magnesium

c. Sulphur

d. Nitrogen

24. Which nutrient is essential for symbiotic and non-symbiotic nitrogen fixation?

a. Boron

b. Zinc

c. Iron

d. Molybdenum

25. Iron chlorosis in calcareous soils can be corrected by application of:

a. Elemental sulphur

b. Lime

c. Murate of potash

d. Calcium ammonium nitrate

26. For foliar spray the biuret content in urea should be:

a. 1.0 1.5 per cent

b. 1.5 2.0 per cent

c. 2.0 -2.5 per cent

d. Less than 0.5 per cent

27. Whiptail disease of cauliflower is caused by deficiency of:

a. Zinc

b. Molybdenum

c. Boron

d. Manganese

28. Which one of the following oilcakes contains maximum nitrogen content?

a. Castor cake

b. Groundnut cake

c. Neem cake

d. Coconut cake

29. Which one of the following is concentrated organic manure?

a. FYM

b. Super Compost

c. Rock Compost

d. Castor cake

30. Phosphorus fixation is more in:

a. Neutral soils

b. Acid soils

c. Submerged soils

d. None of the above

31. Zinc sulphate should not be mixed with:

a. SSP

b. Urea

c. Ammonium chloride

d. FYM

32. Which one of the following strain of Rhizobium is used in soybean for seed treatment?

a. R. meliloti

b. R. trifolii

c. R. japonicum

d. R. leguminoserum

33. Neem cake contains:

a. Dhurin

b. Azadirachtin

c. Saponin

d. None of these

34. In case of trees and vines the Certificate of Registration shall be valid for:

a. 6 years

b. 9 years

c. 15 years

d. 18 years

35. Desired seed replacement rate for varieties of self and cross pollinated crops are:

a. 20% and 25%

b. 60% and 50%

c. 20% and 10%

d. 25% and 35%

36. A major re-structuring of the seed industry by Government of India through the National Seed Project Phase-III was done in the year:

a. 1970-71

b. 1977-78

c. 1990-91

d. 2007-08

37. Cytoplasmic-genetic male sterility is controlled by the genes of:

a. Chloroplast

b. Cytoplasm

c. Nucleus

d. Both b and c

38. To maintain the variation in any species, cell division is essential:

a. Mitosis

b. Meiosis

c. Both a and b

d. None of these

39. High inbreeding depression is observed in:

a. Self pollinated crops

b. Often cross pollinated crops

c. Cross pollinated crops

d. Not depend on nature of pollination

40. As a result of one meiosis, number of female gametes are formed:

a.1

b.2

c.3

d.4

41. The heterosis can be fixed by:

a. Apomixes

b. Male sterility

c. Self incompatibility

d. None of these

42. Seed is a mature:

a. Ovary

b. Embryosec

c. Ovule

d. Embryo

43. With heterozygous gene pairs, the proportion of completely homozygous plants after generations of self­fertilization:

a.

b.

c.

d. None of these

44. After generations of self­fertilization of a complete heterozygous genotype the proportion of homozygosity is:

a.

b. m

c. 1

d. m

45. Collins (1927) observed albino barley at below 45°F it became normal at above 65°F he called it:

a. Environment dependent character

b. Threshold effect

c. G × E interaction

d. Effect of environment

46. Stratified mass selection is advantageous if:

a. Environmental effect is high

b. Inter strata variation is high

c. Environmental effect is low

d. Intra strata variation is high

47. For GCA testing the tester should be:

a. Narrow genetic base

b. Broad genetic base

c. Inbred line

d. With dominant genes

48. In back crossing the line to be improved should be used as:

a. Male recurrent parent

b. Male donor parent

c. Female recurrent parent

d. Female donor parent

49. Time saving and most effective method for identification of transgressive segregants is:

a. Back cross method

b. Pure line selection

c. Doubled heploidy

d. Single seed descent method

50. Pure line selection is applicable in:

a. Hybrids

b. Composites

c. Synthetics

d. Varieties

51. For seed germination which activity is essential:

a. Imbibition of water

b. Cell elongation

c. Increase in cell number

d. All of the above

52. The seeds able to tolerate moisture loss:

a. Recalcitrant

b. Orthodox

c. Both a and b

d. None of these

53. Inbred line can be improved by:

a. Pedigree method

b. Convergent improvement method

c. Back crossing

d. All of the above

54. To develop heterotic pools those inbred lines are selected which are:

a. Good combiner with P1 or P2

b. Good combiner with P1 and P2

c. Poor combiners with both parents

d. Not depend on combining ability

55. In transversion:

a. Purine replaced by another purine

b. Pyrimidine replaced by another pyrimidine

c. Purine replaced by pyrimidine or vice versa

d. None of these

56. Who described the mutagenic effects of X-rays in barley?

a. Muller (1927)

b. Stadler (1928)

c. McClintock (1929)

d. None of these

57. Superiority of F1 over better parent is known as:

a. Heterosis

b. Heterobeltiosis

c. Economic heterosis

d. Luxuriance

58. In dominance hypothesis heterosis will be higher if:

a. Disperse dominance

b. Unidirectional dominance

c. The and having same sign

d. All of the above

59. Preponderance of non additive gene action can be exploited by:

a. Varieties

b. Composites

c. Synthetics

d. Hybrids

60. Germination is suspended by active endogenous inhibitors in:

a. Sterility

b. Incompatibility

c. In viability

d. Dormancy

61. Which of the following seeds can germinate in anaerobic conditions?

a. Wheat

b. Maize

c. Paddy

d. Green gram

62. Testa is governed by the genotype of:

a. Male

b. Female

c. Both by a and b

d. Interaction of egg and sperm genotype

63. The tag colour of the foundation seed is:

a. Golden yellow

b. Blue

c. White

d. Not required

64. Plants grown in the field from previous crops:

a. Volunteer plants

b. Off-type

c. Weeds

d. All of the above

65. In maize isolation distance for inbred line from same seed colour plants is:

a. 200 m

b. 400 m

c. 600 m

d. 800 m

66. Time isolation is permissible in:

a. Maize

b. Pearl millet

c. Sorghum

d. Black gram

67. The moisture content for seed storage in wheat should not be more than:

a.

b.10%

c. 11%

d. 12%

68. The genetic purity of a variety is tested by:

a. Progeny testing

b. DUS Testing

c. Grow out test

d. All of the above

69. Based on physiography and climate, the Planning Commission (1985-90) divided the country into agroclimatic zones:

a. 15

b.21

c.6

d.9

70. The summation of weather conditions over a given region during a comparatively longer period is termed as:

a. Weather

b. Climate

c. Meteorology

d. None of above

71. The lowermost layer of atmosphere is:

a. Troposhere

b. Stratosphere

c. Mesosphere

d. Thermosphere

72. For wheat optimal range of temperature for proper germination and vegetative growth is:

a. 21 to 25 C

b. 15 to 20 C

c. 10 to 14 C

d. 26 to 30 C

73. According to Land Capability Classification, use of Class VI land is restricted to:

a. Field crops

b. Orchards

c. Field crops and orchards

d. Pastures and siviculture

74. Water in soil above field capacity is termed as:

a. Gravitational water

b. Capillary water

c. Hygroscopic water

d. None of the above

75. According to USDA system, particle diameter of silt is:

a. 0.002 to 0.020 mm

b. 0.02 to 0.20 mm

c. 0.20 to 2.00 mm

d. 2.00 mm

76. In most mineral soils the particle density varies between: 3 3

a. 1.4 1.8 mg/m3

b. 2.5 2.7 mg/m3

c. 2.0 2.2 mg/m3

d. 1.8- 2.0 mg/m3

77. How much area in the country is affected by wind erosion?

a. 57.16 million ha

b. 2.68 million ha

c. 10.46 million ha

d. 6.32 million ha

78. The major portion of the soil carried by the wind moves in a series of short bounces is called:

a. Saltation

b. Suspension

c. Surface creep

d. None of the above

79. Which is a correct sequence of soil erosion?

a. Sheet-Rill-Gully

b. Rill-Gully-Sheet

c. Gully-Sheet-Rill

d. Rill-Sheet-Gully

80. If the velocity of water is doubled, its erosive power increases

a.2

b.4

c.6

d.8

81. Saltation occurs when particle size is:

a. 0.1-0.5 mm

b. 0.5-1.0 mm

c. 1.5-2.0 mm

d. 1.0-1.5 mm

82. Infiltration of soils having hard pan can be increased by:

a. Mulching

b. Sub soiling

c. Basin listing

d. None of the above

83. The centre of origin of rice is:

a. India and Burma

b. America

c. South Africa

d. Brazil

84. Boro crop of rice is sown in the month of:

a. May-June

b. June-July

c. November-December

d. March-April

85. PRH-10 is a hybrid of:

a. Pearlmillet

b. Maize

c. Sorghum

d. Rice

86. In nursery raised by "Dapog Method" seedlings becomes ready for transplanting at the age of?

a. 14 days

b. 21 days

c. 25 days

d. 30 days

87. Six rowed barley is:

a. Hordeum distichon

b. Hordeum vulgare

c. Hordeum irregulare

d. All of the above

88. Sweet corn is:

a. Zea mays indentata

b. Zea mays indurata

c. Zea mays saccharata

d. Zea mays amylacea

89. Maize protein is deficient in:

a. Tryptophan and Lysine

b. Vitamin A

c. Riboflavin

d. Vitamin E

90. Sorghum is considered as camel crop because of:

a. Deep root system

b. Resistance to drought

c. Shallow root system

d. Nutrient exhaustiveness

91. Phalaris minor in wheat can be controlled by herbicide:

a. 4-D

b. Atrazine

c. Paraquat

d. Isoproturon

92. Norin-10 gene is responsible for dwarfism in:

a. Wheat

b. Rice

c. Black gram

d. Pearl millet

93. Which of the following is ideal temperature for tillering in wheat? o o

a. 10-15 C

b. 16-20 C

c. 20-23 C

d. 23-25 C

94. The recommended seed rate for bunch type groundnut is:

a. 40-50 kg/ha

b. 50-60 kg/ha

c. 60-70 kg/ha

d. 80-100 kg/ha

95. Which herbicide can be used to control weeds in soybean at 15-20 days after sowing?

a. Alachlor

b. Imazethapyr

c. Fluchloralin

d. Metalachlor

96. Recommended depth of sowing for soybean is:

a.2 to 3 cm

b.3 to 4 cm

c.5 to 6 cm

d.6 to 8 cm

97. The center of origin of sesame is:

a. America

b. India

c. South Africa

d. Indonesia

98. The fruit of mustard is:

a. Siliqua

b. Receme

c. Caryopsis

d. Ear

99. Delinting of cotton seed can be done with:

a. Hydrochloric acid

b. Nitric acid

c. Sulphuric acid

d. Citric acid

100. In sugarcane setts hot water treatment is done to:

a. Control seed borne diseases

b. Control soil borne diseases

c. Break dormancy

d. Convert sucrose into glucose

101. Cuscuta is a parasitic weed of:

a. Berseem

b. Lucerne

c. Oat

d. Fodder sorghum

102. The metamorphic rock, marble is formed from:

a. Limestone

b. Sandstone

c. Shale

d. Coal

103. Minerals formed during the early stage of weathering are:

a. Muscovite and Illite

b. Calcite and Hornblende

c. Kaolinite and Gibbsite

d. Hematite and Goethite

104. Science which deals with soils genesis and classification:

a. Petrology

b. Pedagogy

c. Pedology

d. Petrography

105. Which is the soil order of deep black soil?

a. Vertisols

b. Entisols

c. Inceptisols

d. Ultisols

106. Arrangements of soil particles is referred as:

a. Soil texture

b. Soil structure

c. Soil organization

d. None of the above

107. First 15 cm layer of land which is ploughed for cultivation of crop is called:

a. Soil profile

b. Rhizosphere soil

c. Furrow slice

d. Sub-soil

108. Soil particles get deflocculated due to presence of:

a. Sulphur

b. Sodium

c. Calcium

d. Magnesium

109. Which of the following crop has been approved for commercial cultivation in India?

a. Bt. Brinjal

b. Bt. Tomato

c. Bt. Cotton

d. None of the above

110. Which of the following does not apply to SRI method of rice cultivation?

a. Reduced water application

b. Reduced plant density

c. Reduced age of seedlings

d. Increased application of fertilizers

111. Cotton belongs to the family:

a. Cruciferae

b. Malvaceae

c. Anacardiaceae

d. Solanaceae

112. In mango squash Brix-8, acidity­0.2%), how much quantity of Potassium Metabisulphite is added in 1.0 kg fruit juice?

a. 2.43 g

b. 3.43 g

c. 4.43 g

d. 5.43 g

113. "Arka Mridula" is a variety of:

a. Tamarind

b. Mango

c. Guava

d. Apple

114. Parentage of "Amrapali" hybrid of mango are:

a. Neelum x Dashehari

b. Dashehari x Neelum

c. Neelum x Alphonso

d. Ratna x Alphonso

115. Grape is mostly propagated by:

a. Inarching

b. Budding

c. Soft wood grafting

d. Hard wood stem cutting

116. is propagated by off-shoots (suckers) emerging from the base of the plant?

a. Mandarin

b. Guava

c. Date Palm

d. Pomegranate

117. Ideal planting distance of Date palm is:

a. 5m × 5m

b. 6m × 6m

c. 7m × 7m

d. 8m × 8m

118. "Pusa Delicious" is a variety of:

a. Date Palm

b. Papaya

c. Banana

d. Mango

119. In Central India, mandarins are manured during May for:

a. Mrig Bahar

b. Ambe Bahar

c. Hast Bahar

d. None of the above

120. January-February flowering in Pomegranate is known as:

a. Mrig Bahar

b. Ambe Bahar

c. Hasta Bahar

d. None of these

121. "NA 6" variety of Aonla is a selection of:

a. Chakaiya

b. Francis

c. Banarasi

d. NA 7

122. is a popular variety of:

a. Coconut

b. Date palm

c. Ber

d. Cashew nut

123. In high density orcharding of papaya with variety PusaNanha, suitable plant spacing is:

a. 1.2m × 1.2m

b. 1.6m × 1.6m

c. 1.8m × 1.8m

d. 1.0m × 1.0m

124. Panama wilt disease in Banana is caused by:

a. M. phaseolina

b. Fusarium oxysporum

c. G. musae

d. V. theobromae

125. Powdery mildew in Ber is caused by:

a. I. zizyphi

b. Alternaria spp.

c. Phytophthora spp.

d. Oidium zizyphi

126. Causal organism for Gummosis in Citrus is:

a. Phytophthora spp.

b. Xanthomonas spp.

c. Alternaria citri

d. Glomerella cingulata

127. Ideal time for T-budding in roses in northern plains is:

a. February April

b. January March

c. December February

d. October November

128. 'Pusa Uttam' is a variety of:

a. Tomato

b. Potato

c. Bottle gourd

d. Brinjal

129. Average seed rate of cabbage is:

a. 500 -750 g

b. 200-350 g

c. 1000-1250 g

d. 350-450 g

130. Which one is a rich source of carotene?

a. Brinjal

b. Cauliflower

c. Carrot

d. Capsicum

131. Scientific name of cauliflower is:

a. Brassica oleracea var. botrytis

b. Brassica oleracea var. capitata

c. Brassica oleracea var. gemmifera

d. Brassica oleracea var. italica

132. Crop geometry of spring-summer season okra is:

a. 60 cm × 30 cm

b. 45cm × 30 cm

c. 60 cm × 60 cm

d. 60 cm × 45 cm

133. Pusa Chetki is a variety of:

a. Radish

b. Carrot

c. Cauliflower

d. Cabbage

134. How much area is required for raising seedlings of tomato for one hectare? 22

a. 1000 m

b. 750 m 22

c. 500 m

d. 250 m

135. Optimum seed rate of small seeded water melon is:

a. 3.0 3.5 kg/ha

b. 2.0 2.5 kg/ha

c. 4.0 4.5 kg/ha

d. 1.0 -1.5 kg/ha

136. Damping off in chilli is caused by:

a. Pythium spp.

b. Erysiphe spp.

c. Peronospora spp.

d. Albugo spp.

137. Causal organism of powdery mildew in pea:

a. Septoria lycopersici

b. Uromyces pisi

c. Erysiphe polygoni

d. Fusarium spp.

138. Radical cracks at the stem end of the tomato fruit are caused by:

a. Phosphorus deficiency

b. Phytophthora infestans

c. Fruit borer

d. Wide fluctuations in soil moisture

139. In cabbage, cauliflower and broccoli hollow stems with darkened interiors are most often caused by:

a. Boron deficiency

b. Magnesium deficiency

c. Calcium deficiency

d. Chilling temperature

140. Thread like white lines on the vegetable leaf that gradually widen are symptom of:

a. Aphids

b. Flea beetles

c. Army worm feeding

d. Leaf miner

141. Soft wood grafting is successful in:

a. Grapes

b. Aonla

c. Pomegrnate

d. Mango

142. Processing temperature for canning in vegetables except more acidic is: o o

a. 85-101 C

b. 115-121 C

c. 125-131 C

d. 134-151 C

143. Which of the following is not an auxin?

a. IAA

b. NAA

c. 4-D

d. GA3

144. If heritability is high which method is most suitable:

a. Mass selection

b. Half sib selection

c. Full sib selection

d. Reciprocal recurrent selection

145. The natural selection can play the role in:

a. Pure line selection

b. Pedigree selection

c. Bulk method

d. Single seed descent method

146. Proportion of individuals having the expected phenotype determined by particular gene is called:

a. Expressivity

b. Heritability

c. Segregation

d. Penetrance

147. AB and O blood groups are the example of

a. Pleiotropy

b. Heritability

c. Dominance

d. Codominance

148. In a diallel cross difference between marginal totals of a parent is due to:

a. Reciprocal effect

b. Maternal effect

c. Environmental effect

d. Interaction of nuclear and cytoplasmic genes

149. Effect of linkage is visible in:

a. P1

b.P 2

c. F1

d.F 2

150. Ratio is obtained in:

a. Recessive epistasis

b. Dominant epistasis

c. Duplicate epistasis

d. Complementary epistasis

151. Household refrigerators are generally operated at:

a. 7-10°C

b. 4.5-7 °C

c. 10-12 °C

d. 10-15 °C

152. Which of the following is an example of Perishable food?

a. Wheat

b. Milk

c. Paddy

d. Bajra

153. Elephant's Foot Yam is a rich source of Vitamin:

a. A& B

b.B& C

c. C D

d.Only B

154. What is the term used to describe organism which thrive in the cold?

a. Mesophillic

b. Aerophillic

c. Psychrophillic

d. Halophillic

155. A food with a pH value of 3.5 is considered as:

a. Neutral

b. Low acid

c. High acid

d. Non-acid

156. Who had designed National Flag of India?

a. Pingali Venkayya

b. V. Aiyangar

c. Subhash Chandra Bose

d. Lala Lajpat Rai

157. The first Adaptation Gap Report on Climate Change was recently released by:

a. International Maritime Organisation

b. United Nations Environment Programme

c. United Nations Development Organisation

d. United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change

158. Who has been appointed as first Deputy Chairperson of recently constituted NITI Aayog?

a. Bimal Jalan

b. Arvind Pangaria

c. Amartya Sen

d. Suresh Tendulkar

159. What was the venue for Blue Economy-International Workshop on Sustainable Growth held in September 2014?

a. Dhaka, Bangladesh

b. Melbourne, Australia

c. New Delhi, India

d. Beijing, China

160. Recently the major tribal bodies of which State rejected the demand for a separate State called Twipraland?

a. Meghalaya

b. Tripura

c. Chhattishgarh

d. Jharkhand

161. The China-Pakistan Economic Corridor which was inaugurated by Pakistan Prime Minister, Nawaz Sharif on 29 November 2014 will connect:

a. Lahore in Pakistan and Xinjiang in China

b. Gwadar Port in Pakistan and Xinjiang in China

c. Xinjiang in China and Gilgit in Pakistan-occupied Kashmir

d. Lahore in Pakistan with Shanghai in China

162. Air India on 4 December 2014 signed an MoU for implementation of the monetisation of its assets at various locations on joint venture basis with:

a. Reliance Industries Lt

d. National Buildings

b. Star Alliance

c. Construction Corporation Limited

d. Air Asia

163. Who will head the Social Justice Bench recently constituted by the Supreme Court for speedy delivery of justice in a range of social issues?

a. Justice Madan B. Lokur

b. Justice P. Sathasivam

c. Justice K. N. Katju

d. Justice Anil R. Dave

164. Who among the following was recently appointed as the new Director of Central Bureau of Investigation

a. Acharya Shivpoojan Sahay

b. Vijay Kumar

c. Anil Kumar Sinha

d. Omendra Bhardwaj

165. Who of the following was named as the TIME's Person of the Year 2014?

a. Ebola fighters

b. Mark Zuckerberg

c. Malala Yosufzai

d. Pope Francis

166. Where is Mangva cave located?

a. Ukhrul

b. Churachandpur

c. Tamenglong

d. Chandel

167. In December 2014, Nyaborongo Hydro Electric Project was commissioned by Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited in which of the following African countries?

a. Rwanda

b. Sudan

c. Kenya

d. South Africa

168. Which of the following is the oldest text in world?

a. Sama Veda

b. Atharva Veda

c. Rig Veda

d. Yajur Veda

169. Which of the following organisations looks at standard for representation of data on the internet

a. IEEE

b. ISOC

c. W3C

d. IETE

170. Which of the following pairs (Place: event) is incorrectly matched with regards to Gautam Buddha's life?

a. Lumbini: Birth

b. Bodh Gaya: Attained Enlightenment

c. Sravasti: First Sermon

d. Kusinara: Death

171. Which of the following is not true of the Cabinet Mission plan

a. It rejected the creation of a separate State of Pakistan

b. It gave scope to the communal representation

c. It recognized India's right to secede from the Commonwealth

d. All members of the Indian Cabinet are to be Indians

172. Who was the Author of Rajtarangini:

a. Kalhan

b. Jaydev

c. Banbhatt

d. Vishnugupt

173. The social ideals of Mahatma Gandhi were first put forth in:

a. Harijan

b. Hind Swaraj

c. History of Satyagrah in South Africa

d. My Experiments with Truth

174. Which of the following trophies is not associated with cricket?

a. Charminar Challenge Cup

b. Devdhar Trophy

c. Beighton Cup

d. Rohinton Baria Trophy

175. The banks are required to maintain a certain ratio between their cash in the hand and totals assets. This is called:

a. Cash Reserve Ratio

b. Statutory Liquidity Ratio

c. Central Bank Reserve

d. Asset Liability Ratio

176. Ozone layer in the upper atmosphere is due to the reactions of:

a. CO2& O2

b. O2 UV rays

c. Infrared rays and UV rays

d. CO2 Water Vapour

177. The speed of light will be minimum while passing through:

a. Air

b. Glass

c. Water

d. Vacuum

178. Galvanising of sheet iron is done by dipping the sheet metal into molten:

a. Copper

b. Cadmium

c. Lead

d. Zinc

179. Enzymes are:

a. Protein

b. Fatty acids

c. Nucleic acids

d. Sugars

180. The molten rocks called magma spewed out in volcanic eruptions during the earth's early life and solidified into hard rocks called:

a. Sedimentary rocks

b. Igneous rocks

c. Granite

d. Basalt

181. The President can dismiss a Member of the Council of Ministers:

a. With the consent of the speaker

b. On his own

c. On the recommendation of the Prime Minister

d. Only under emergency conditions

182. The Members of the Parliamentary Committee:

a. Are appointed by the President in consultation with the Prime Minister

b. Are taken from various groups and parties in Parliament in proportion to their respective strength

c. Are appointed by the President on the recommendation of the Speaker

d. Both b and c

183. Tansen, a great musician of his time, was in the Court of

a. Jahangir

b. Shahjahan

c. Humayun

d. Akbar

184. The words 'Satyameva Jayate' inscribed below the base plate of the emblem of India are taken from:

a. Satpath Brahmana

b. Rigved

c. Mundak Upanishad

d. Tripitak

185. Who is the Author of the book "Superstar India: From Incredible to Unstoppable"?

a. Vikram Seth

b. Sobha De

c. Arvind Adiga

d. Arundhati Roy

186. Solar energy is due to:

a. Fission reactions

b. Fusion reactions

c. Chemical reactions

d. Combustion reactions

187. Oxytocin is secreted by:

a. Adrenal gland

b. Testes

c. Pituitary gland

d. Pancreas

188. Autotrophs in an ecosystems are called:

a. Consumers

b. Producers

c. Decomposers

d. Abiotic constituents

189. Joint Parliamentary Sessions are chaired by the:

a. Speaker of the Lok Sabha

b. President of India

c. Vice President of India who is the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

d. Prime Minister of India

190. A man walks 3 km. northwards and then turns left and goes 2 km. He again turns left and goes 3 km. He turns right and walks straight. In which direction he is walking now?

a. East

b. West

c. North

d. South

191. Kamal ranked 16th from the top and 29th from the bottom among those who passed an examination. 6 boys did not participate in the competition and 5 failed in the examination. How many boys were there in that class?

a. 44

b.40

c. 50

d.55

192. What will be the missing number in the series: 26, 65, 124, 215,

a. 295

b. 305

c. 323

d. 342

193. A lady pointing to a man in photograph says, "The father of his brother is the only son of my maternal grandfather." How is the man related to that lady?

a. Husband

b. Son

c. Maternal uncle

d. None of these

194. What is

a. An outdoor game mainly played by females

b. Ritual performed during Yaosang

c. Type of religious procession

d. Costume used in Manipuri dance

195. Gaan-Ngai is the festival of which tribe?

a. Zeliangrong

b. Thadou

c. Poumai

d. Tangkhul

196. What is the capital of Albania?

a. Yerevan

b. Tirana

c. Skopje

d. Dodoma

197. The Northern Part of Western Ghats is known as:

a. Sahyadris Range

b. Neelgiri Range

c. Satpura Range

d. Vindhyan Range

198. Anshi National Park is located in:

a. Maharashtra

b. Odisha

c. Karnataka

d. Telangana

199. Aphelion takes place on:

a. 9th May

b. 4th July

c. 15th September

d. 21st November

200. The instrument used to detect and record earthquakes is called:

a. Seismograph

b. Barometer

c. Hygrometer

d. Altimeter