I. A cantilever beam of tubular section consists of 2 materials, copper as outer cylinder and steel as inner cylinder. It is subjected to a temperature rise of 20°C and ucoppcr Ustcd The stresses developed in the tubes will be

Compression in steel and tension in copper


Tension in steel and compression in copper


No stress in both


Tension in both the materials


2. For ductile materials, the most appropriate failure theory is

Maximum shear stress theory Maximum principal stress theory


Maximum principal strain theory Shear strain energy theory


3. Consider for following statements: The principle of superposition is applied to
1.
Linear elastic bodies

2.
Bodies subjected to small defonnations
Of these statements




1 alone is correct I and 2 are correct


2 alone is correct Neither 1 nor 2 is conect


4. An elastic bar of length cross sectional area young's modulus of elasticity E and self­weigh W is hanging vertically. It is subjected to a load P applied axially at the bottom end. The total elongation of the bar is given by
WI WI
AE AE 2AE AE 2AE ZAE AE 2AE

5. The limit of propOl1ionality is applicable more in the case of
Concrete Wood Cast iron Mild steel
6. According to Tresca, yield locus is alan.
Rectangle Circle Hexagon Ellipse
7. A horizontal beam is hinged at and supported on rollers at the It carries inclined loads. To detemline the support reactions, the funicular polygon.

Must start only from the support'S'


Must start only from the support


Could stal1 from anywhere on the vertical line through'S'.
(O)Could start from anywhere between



8. For a given system of coplanar forces if the pole of the force polygon moves along a straight line OP, then the sides of the funicular polygon would rotate about fixed points all of which lie on

A straight line parallel to OP A circle with centre.at 0


An ellipse with OP as the major axis A circle with centre at P


KL14/CE - Series-A
9. Consider the following statements:
I. The intersection of the first and last ray in funicular diagram is on the line of action of the resultant
II. Intersection of first and last ray in polar diagram gives the magnitude of the resultant. Ofthese statements.

Both I and II are true I is false but II is true


I is true but II is false Both I and II are false


10. In a closed-coiled helical spring subjected to an axial load, other quantities remaining the same, if the wire diameter is doubled, then the stiffness of the spring when compared to the original one,-will become
Twice Four times Eight times Sixteen lines
II. The cross-section of a bar is subjected to a uniaxial tensile stress p. the tangential stress on a plane inclined at eto the cross-section ofthe bar would be
PBi;29 p sin 20 PCOS29 Pcos 2e
z
12.
A column of height and area at top has the same strength throughout its length, under its own weight and applied stress at the top. Density of column material is To satisfy the above condition, the area of the colunm at the bottom should be

(A)AeH JXlip AeP H!po AeP Hpo Ae-P Hpo

13.
For the coplanar concuo-ent system of forces as shown in the given figure, the system will be


1
Fl 10kN
F2 =20 kN


F3

In equilibrium iflF3 10 Kn


In equilibrium iflF3 10 v'2kN


In equilibrium iflF3 20 kN


Will not be in equilibrium whatever be the magnitude of F3


14. Polar moment of inertia of the cross-section of a member is deternlined to asses the strength member in
Bending Torsion Axial force Shear
15. If the trace ofa load is inside the kern ofthe section of a column, the stresses arc

Ofthe same sign at all points in the section


Of different sign inside and outside the kern


Of maximum value at the centroid of the section


Uniform at all points in the section.


KL14/CE Series-A
16. In a system of coplanar forces, when the force polygon closed but functional polygon does not close, the forces are

Equivalent to a couple


Equivalent to a resultant whose magnitude, direction and line of action can be dctennined


In equilibrium


Equivalent to a couple and a resultant force


17.
A simply supported beam of span 2a) with equal overhangs cames a unifonnly

. distributed load over the whole length the B.M. changes sign if



18.
In order to find the resultant oT coplanar parallel system of forces, the COlTect sequence of the graphical procedure to be followed is



Force diagram, space diagram, funicular polygon and polar diagram


Funicular polygon, force diagram, space diagram and polar diagram


Space diagram, force diagram, polar diagram and funicular polygon


Space diagram, funicular polygon, force diagram and polar diagram


19. The stress at which a material fractures under large number ofreversals of stress is called

Endurance limit Creep


Ultimate strength Residual stress


20. The shear caused by sinking of one of the suppol1 by of simply supported beam of span L& flexuralligidity EI is
12£1


. Zero

21. Poisson's ratio for cork is
0 0.2 0.25 None ofthe above
22. For graphical method of solution of plane truss, the maximum numbers of unknown forces ,at a joint should not be more than
One Two Three None of above
23. Consider the following assumptions in the analysis of a plane truss
I. The individual members are straight
II. The individual members are connected by fhctionless hinges
III. The loads and reactions act only at the joint
Of these assumptions
and II are valid I and III are valid

II and III are valid II and III are valid
KL14/CE Series-A
24. Consider the following statements: Sinking of an intel111ediate support of a continuous beam
1. Reduces the negative moment at support
II. Increase the negative moment at supp0l1
III. Reduces the positive moment at the center of span
IV. Increase the positive moment at the centre of span
Of these statement


I and IV are con'ect I and III are correct


II and IIJ are conect II and IV are COiTect


25. System A is simply suppo11ed beam with a load P at nud span. System B is the same beam but the load is replaced by a udl of intensity P/L where in L is the span. The mid span deflection of system B will

Be the same as that of system'A' at mid span


Be less than as that of system at mid span


Be more than as that ofsystem'A' at mid span


Bear no relation to that of system A


26. In a two hinged arch an increase in temperature induces

No bending moment in the arch rib


Unifol111 bending moment in the arch rib


Maximum bending moment at the crown


Minimum bending moment at the crown


27. The shape of the bending moment diagram over the length of a beam, having no external load, is always
Linear Parabolic Cubical Circular
28. Match List I with List II and select the conect answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II (Type of soil) (mode of transportation and position)
A. Lacustrine soil I. Transportation by wind
B. Alluvial soil 2. Transportation by running water
C. Aeolian soil 3. Deposited at bottom of lakes
D. Marine soil 4. Deposited in sea water
Codes:

BCD ABC 0 ABC 0 A B C0 I234 32I4 324I I 3 24
29. The conect increasing order of capillary rise at a given temperature in different types of soil is

Fine sand, silt, clay, colloids Fine sand, clay silt, colloids


Fine sand, clay, colloids, silt Silt, fine sand, clay, colloids


30. Find sand comprises of
Montmorillonite Halloysite Kaolinite Rock minerals
3 I. The type of soil structure in which particles of soil are arranged in face-to-face orientation is
called
Honeycomb Flocculent
Cohesive matrix Dispersed
KLl4/CE Series-A 4

32. For the purpose of designing a well point system for lowering ground water table in a sandy silt deposit. the coefficient of penneability of the soil is to be detennined. Which one of the following methods would be most suitable?

Constant head pem1eameter test Variable head penneameter test


Pumping out test in field Pumping in test in field


33. Due to a rise of temperature, the viscosity and unit weight of the percolating fluid are reduced to 75% to 97% respectively. Other things being constant, calculate the percentage change in the coefficient ofpenneability.
26.5% 29.5% 31.5% 33.5%
34. The ratio of specific yield to specific retention of an porosity 50% is 1.5, the specjfic yield from it is
20% 30% 37.5% 25%
35. The mass specific gravity of a fully saturated specimen of clay having a water content of 36% is
1.86. On oven drying, the mass specific gravity drops to 1.72. Calculate the specific gravity of clay and its shrinkage limit.

G=2.69, ws= 21 G=2.69, ws= 25%


G=2.89, ws= 21% G=2.79, ws= 27%


36. A flOv11et is drawn to obtain

Seepage, coefficient ofpem1eability and uplift pressure


Coefficient ofpenneability, uplift pressure and exit gradient


Exit gradient, uplift pressure, seepage quantity


Exit gradient. seepage and coefficient of pellneability


37. In an anisotropic soil field if kx is the permeability coefficient x-direction and ky is the pem1eability coefficient in y-direction, then the equivalent permeability of transfollned field for detennination ofdischarge is

Keq jk;1k; r·l:+ ky
eq "I kx-k y
Keq= • ky Ke J1+kX
Jk x
q l-ky
38. Consider the following characteristics ofsoil layer,
I. Poisson's Ratio 4. Effect of water table
2.
Young's modulus 5. Rigidity of footing

3.
F:inite nature of soil


Westergaard's analysis for pressure distribution in soil utilizes
4 and 5 4 and5 4 and 5 I and 5
39. Consider the following statement related to triaxial test:
1.
Failure occurs along predetennined plane

2.
Intennediate and minor principal stresses are equal

3.
Volume changes can be measured

4.
Field condition can be simulated


Of these statements

1,2 3 are eoneet 1,2 4 are eoneet


1,3&4are coneet &4 are eoneet


KL14/CE Series-A 40. Which one of the following planes is most likely to be the failure plane in sandy soils?

Plane carrying maximum shear stress


Plane carrying maximum normal stress


Plane calTying maximum angle of obliquity


Principal plane


41. For stability analysis of an earth dam for steady seepage case, the most appropriate test would be the

Unconsolidated undrained test Consolidated undrained test


Unconsolidated drained test Consolidated drained test


42. Total settlement of a compressible soil stratum of 2 m deep and having coefficient of volume compressibility of 0.02 cm 21kg under a pressure increment of 2 kg/cm2 will be
2 cm 4cm Scm JOcm
43. The total passive ea11h pressure per meter length against a retaining wall of height 3m. with backfill of unit weight J.8 t/m3 and angle of internal friction 30° will be
2 J.2 tim 22.8 tim 24.3 tim 26.5 tim
44. Consider the following statements,
Lime stabilization leads to

1. Decrease in shrinkage limit 2. Increase in plastic limit
3. Decrease in liquid limit 4. Flocculation of clay particles
Of these statements

3 are conect 1,2 4 are correct


I. 3 4 are correct 3 4 are correct


45. A soil has a discharge velocity of 6 x lO,i mls and a void ratio of 0.5. its seepage velocity is
18 x 1O,7 111/s 12 x 10,7 mls
10,7 mls 3x 10,7 mls
46. A surface footing 1 m. x 1 m. in sand settles by 5 cm. under a pressure intensity of q. If the size of this surface footing is increased to 3m. x 4m. then under the same intensity of pressure, the settlement will be

More than Scm Less than 5 cm


Remain same Indetern1inate


47. Negative skin friction on a pile under vertical compressive load acts

Downwards in.crease the load calTying capacity ofthe pile


Downwards reduces the load calTying capacity ofthe pile


Upwards and increase the load carrying capacity of the pile


Downwards maintains the same load calTying capacity ofthe pile.


48. Limiting gradient in mountainous area is recommended as

49. The 30th highest hour volume is

The average of the 30 peak hour volumes in a month


The hourly volume which is exeeeded by only 30 hours in a year


The hourly volume which is exeeeded by only 29 hours in a year


The average of the 30 highest volumes in a year


KL14/CE
J
.
50. An enoscope is used ror measuring

Running speed Time mean speed


Spot speed Overall speed


51. The cumulative speed distribution curve is usually adopted for geometric design of highway. The percentile speed adopted for geometric design is

85th percentile speed 90th percentile speed


98th percentile speed 99.9tl1 percentile speed


52: Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the codes given beloyv the lists
List I List II
A. Penetration test I. Design of bituminous concrete mix -B. Marshall Test 2. Overlay design
C. Ring and ball test 3. Gradation ofasphalt cement
D. Bankelman Beam Test 4. Determination of softening point
Codes:

BCD ABC D ABC D ABC D 324I 3142 23 I4 423I
53. In the design of highways expansion and contraction joints should respectively be provided at

50m. and 32 m. 50m. and 10m.


25m. and 10 m. 25m. and 32 m.


54. Retlection cracking is observed in

Flexible pavement


Rigid pavement


Rigid overlay over t1exible pavement


Bituminous overlay over cement concrete pavement


55. Bankelman beam deflection method is used for design or

Rigid overlay on rigid pavement Flexible overlay on flexible pavement


Flexible overlay on rigid pavement Rigid overlay on tlexible pavement


56. In the revised CBR design method recommended by the IRC for the design of tlexible pavement, the total thickness depends upon

CBR value of soil only


CBR value of soil and magnitude of wheel load


CBR value of soil and number of commercial vehicles per day


CBR value of soil and cumulative standard axle loads.


57. Which of the following causes raveling in bituminous pavements

Use of soft bitumen Excessive bitumen content


Low bitumen content Use ofopen graded aggregates


58. Which ofthe following statements regarding ballast material are correct?
1.
Brick ballast has poor drainage characteristics

2.
Coal ash is not used as ballast with steel or cast iron sleepers

3.
Gravel ballast gives better performance in soft formation

4.
Sand ballast causes excessive wear on top ofrail


Select the correct answer using the codes given below
Codes:

I and2 I and4 1and3 and4
KLI4/CE Series-A
59. Which one of the following relates to the percussion theory for explaining the causes of creep?

Pushing the rails forward and bachvard during staIiing and slowing


Impact of wheels at the rail end ahead at joints


Pushing the rail off the track due to the thrust on driving wheels


Formation ofveIiical reverse curves behind and ahead of wheels


60. Wear of rail is maximum in

Tangent track Sharp curve


Tunnels Coastal area


61. The sleeper density of a BG track is 6)in metric units. The number of sleepers per 1.024km. length of track is
1520 1630 (C)1720 1800
62. The axle load including weight of wheels and axle (provided the rail has not lost more than of its original section) for a 44.5 kg/m rail section for broad gauge shall be

17.5 tonnes 19.0 tonnes


23.0 tonnes (0)28.5 tonnes


63. A train is hauled by locomotive with 22.5 tonncs load on each driving axle. Assuming the coefficient ofrail wheel to be 0.25, what would be the hauling capacity of the locomotive'?

15.0 tonnes 22.5 tonnes


45.0 tonnes 90.0 tOImes


64. Match list I and list II and select conect answer using codes given below the list:
List I List II
A. Distance between adjoining face of running rail and check rail I. lIed Divergence
B. Distance through which the tongue rail moves laterally at the 2. Flangeway clearance Toe of switch for the movement of rail
C. Distance between the gauge faces of the stock rai I and tongue 3. Throw of switch
Rail at the heel

D. Angle between the gauge face of stock rail and tongue rail 4. Switch angle
Codes:
BCD I 234 ABC 0 I 3 2 4 ABC 3 I 2 0 4­ 2 B 1 C D 3 4
65. S2 profile can occur at A break in slope from mild to sleep A break in slop from steep to mild The dis of a sluice gate on a steep slope sudden drop in bed in a steep slope
66. In a standing wave flume, the depth of flow in the throat region Should always be greater then the critical depth Can be less than the critical depth Should be equal to the critical depth Is effected by the dis depth when a jump is formed.
KLl4/CE Series-A 8

67. "Eddy Viscosity" means that it is

Physical property of the fluid


Same as the kinematic viscosity


Always associated with laminar flow


An apparent viscosity due to turbulent Jlow


68. If flow condition satisfy' Laplace Equation' then


Flow is rotational


Flow does not satisfy continuity equation


Flow is irrotational but does not satisfy continuity equation


Flow is ilTotational and satisfy continuity equation


69. Which of the following equations are used for the derivation of the differential equation foi' water surface profile in open channel flow?
I. Continuity equation 2. Energy equation 3. Momentum equation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
Codes:
I, 2 and 3 I and 3 I and 2 (D)2and3
70. When no extemal energy is imposed. which of the following statement should be true:
I. Energy line always falls in the direction of flow
2.
Hydraulic gradient line never rises in the direction of flow

3.
Specific energy may increase or decrease in the direction of flow

4.
Energy line and hydraulic gradient line can cross each other


Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
Iand2 (B)2and3 (C)3and4 I and 3
71. In a gradually varied flow, ifdy/dx is positive then dE dx will be,

Always zero Positive if y>Yc


Negative if y Yc Always negative


72. The separation of boundary layer takes place when the pressure gradient is
Negative Positive Zero Constant
73. Which one ofthe following velocity field represents a possible fluid flow?
. x2 •V =y2
U xy. x 2i v
74. The head loss in a pipe of diameter, carrying oil at a flow rate Q over a distance I is h. The pipe is replaced by another with half the diameter, all other things remaining the same the head loss of this case will be,
0.5h 2.0h 8.0h 32.0h
75. The stream lines of fluid motion represents

Lines along which velocity potential is constant


Lines along which stream function is constant


Lines along which vorticity is zero


Line pe1l)endicular to the lines along which stream function is constant


KLI4/CE -Series-A 9
76. In a free vortex, velocity

Decreases with radius


Increases with radius


Is constant


Varies inversely as the square of the radius


77. In a V-notch an error of 0.5% in the measurement of head would constitute in the discharge measurement an error of
1.5% 1.25%
78. The velocity distribution over one half of a cross-section IS uniform and is zero over the remaining half. The momentum correction factor is
2.0 1.0 4.0 3.0
79. The basic equation which govem the motion of incompressible viscous fluid in laminar motion is called as

Hagen-Poiseullie equation Stokes equation


Darcy-weisbach equation Navier-stokes equation


80. The cavitation and pitting can be prevented by creating which one of the following conditions

Reducing the pressure head Reducing the velocity head


Increasing elevation head Reducing piezometric head


81. In the distorted model of a river the horizontal and vertical scale ratios are LH and respectively. The discharge ratio will be
LHI/2
82. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II (Treatment Method) (Design Parameter)
A. Plain sedimentation tank I. Hydraulic loading rate
B. Ion-exchange 2. Exhaust of bed
C. Floeculator 3. Settling velocity
p. Rapid sand filter 4. Velocity gradient
Codes:
(A)ABC D (B)ABC D (C)ABC D B CD I423 2I34 32 4I 4 3I2
83. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List I List II (Organism) (Disease transmitted)
A. Bacteria I. Infections Hepatitis
B. Viruses 2. Amoebic dysentery
C. Protozoa 3. Paratyphoid
D. Helminths 4. Guniea-worm infection
Codes:
BCD ABC D ABC D A BCD 1243 3124 24 3I 4 2I3
KLI4/CE Series-A 10 84. Match List I with List II and choose the cOlTect answer using the codes given below:
List I List II (Impurities) (Disease)
A. Nitrate concentration> 45 ppm 1. Laxative Effect
B. Sulphate concentration> 250 ppm 2. Discoloration of teeth
e. Flouride concentration> 1.0 ppm 3. Cavities in teeth
D. Flouride concentration> 1.5 ppm 4. Methamogoblenemia or blue baby disease Codes:
BCD ABC D ABC 0 ABC D 4I23 43 12 12 34 4 1-3 2
85. Match List I with List II and select the cOlTect answer using the codes given below:
List I List II

A. Baylis Apparatus I. Field instrument of turbidity ofwater
B. Tintomater 2. Measuring instrument for pH of vater
e. Potentiometer 3. Measuring instrument for colour of water
Turbidity rod For measuring precisely low turbidities in water Codes:
(A) ABC D (B)ABC D (C)ABC D (D)ABC 0 432 I 423 I I2 34 I324
. 86. Match List I with List II and select the con'ect answer using the codes given below the list: List I List II
A. Soil pipe 1. Ventilating pipe
B. Intercepting trap 2. Wash basin .
C. P-trap 3. Water closet waste
D. Cowl 4. House drainage
Codes:

B C D (B)ABC D ABC D (D)ABC D 34 I2 342 I 432I 4312
87. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list:
List I List II
(Terms) (processes)

A. Sludge volume index 1. Settling in primary settling tank
B. Thickening of sludge 2. Settling in secondary settling tank
e. Scum removal 3. Filtration in trickling filter
D. Recycling ofeffluent 4. Activated sludge process Codes: BCD ABC D ABC 0 ABC 0
2413 4231 2431 4 2I3
KL.14/CE Series-A
88. Match List I vith List II and select the conect answer using the codes given below the list:
List I List II (Process) (Biological agent)
A. Oxidation ditch 1. Facultative bacteria
B. Waste stabilization pond 2. Anaerobic bacteria
C. Imhoff tank 3. Aerobic bacteria (suspended culture)
D. Rotating biological contractor 4. Aerobic bacteria (attached culture) Codes:
(A)ABC 0 (B)ABC 0 (C)ABC 0 (D)ABC 0 4I23 3I24 I234 3 412
89. Match List bvith List II and select the conect answer using the codes given belm' the list:
List I List II (Pollutants) (Effect produced)
A. CO 1. Green house effect
B. CO2 2. Acid rain
C. S02 3. Acute toxicity
D. NOx 4. Ozone liberation at ground level Codes:
BCD ABC 0 ABC 0 A BCD 32 I4 234 1 3124 4 I 23
90. Area method of land filling is most suitable when Area is unsuitable for excavation of trenches Adequate depth of cover material is available at site The water table is near the surface Natural or artificial depressions exist in the vicinity
91. Under Indian conditions, the average per capita contribution of BOD is 10 to 20 gm/d 20 to 35 gm/d 35 to 50 gm/d 50 to 70 gm/d
92. Functional organization system ofworking was introduced by F.W. Taylor Henry Gantt M.R. Walker J.E. Kelly
93. In resource leveling


Total duration ofproject is reduced Total duration of project is increased


Uniform demand of resource is achieved Cost of project is controlled


94. Consider the following operations:
I. Drilling 2. Blasting 3. Mucking 4. Placing steel 5. Placing concrete The conect sequence of these operation in tunnel construction is

95. During the construction period, price variation clause in contracts caters to:

Increase in rates ofonly important material


Variation in cost in materials element, labour element and petrol-oil-lubricant element


Variation in total cost of the project on an adhoc basis


Rate ofinflation


KL14/CE Series-A

96. Security deposit deducted at from contractors bill is

Refunded when the contractor has completed the


Refunded even before the completion of the work provided good progress has been
established



Retained till the expected life of the structure of say 100 years and spent for maintenance


Refunded when the defect liability period at six month or one monsoon whichever in later is Over


97. Work study comprisc

Motion study Work mcasurement


Probabilistic analysis Method study and work measurement


98. Small jobs assigned to some individuals or fim1s, not directly employed on the project are known as
Sub contacts Job work Ancillary works Miscellaneous works
99. Sinking fund is

The fund for rebuilding a structure when its economic life is over


Raised to meet maintenance costs


The total sum to be paid to the municipal authorities by the tenants


A pali of the money kept in reserve for providing additional structures and structural
Modification



100. Consider the following statements: PERT
1.
Takes care of uncertainties in the completion time

2.
Requires single time estimate

3.
Is useful for research and development oriented problem

4.
Uses beta distribution probability cure.
Of these statement




I and 2 are correct 3 and 4 are correct


3 and 4 are correct and 4 are correct


KLl4!CE Series-A _13