1 The congenital absence of many teeth is termed as

a. Hypodontia

b. Anodontia

c. Oligodontia

d. Diphyodontia

2 The abnormal loss of tooth structure due to non masticatory, non mechanical means

a. Erosion

b. Abrasion

c. Attrition

d. Abfraction

3 The Greater palatine foramen is located distal to the apex of maxillary:

a. First Molar

b. Second Premolar

c. Second Molar

d. Canine

4 Which ligament is most likely to get damaged, while giving an inferior alveolar nerve block injection?

a. Sphenomandibular Ligament

b. Temporomandibular Ligament

c. Stylomandibular Ligament

d. Pterygomandibular raphe

5 Which one of the following is not a characteristic of General Shock?

a. Incresed Vascular Resistance

b. Bradycardia

c. Myocardial Ischaemia

d. Adrenergic response

6 The nerve block is induced by local anesthetics by decreasing the permeability of ions channels to

a. Calcium ions

b. Chloride ions

c. Potassium ions

d. Sodium ions

7 How long should one wait before obtaining Biopsy of an oral ulcer?

a. 4 days

b. 7 days

c. 14 days

d. 30 days

8 The mandibular left second molar of a 14 year old boy is unerupted.. Radiographs show a small Dentigerous cyst surrounding the crown. What is the treatment of choice?

a. Surgically extract the unerupted second molar

b. Uncover the crown and keep it exposed

c. Prescribe an anti inflammatory medication and schedule a follow appointment in six months

d. No treatment is necessary at this time

9 Osteomyelitis usually begins in the medullary space involving

a. Periosteum

b. Soft tissues

c. Cortical bone

d. Cancellous bone

10 What cephalometric analysis measurement is characteristic in Class J malocclusions?

a. SNA angle of more than 84 degree

b. SNA angle of less than 78 degres

c. ANB angle of less than 4 degrees

d. SNB angle of less than 10 degrees

11 Which one of the following is not the generalized causes of failure or delayed tooth eruption

a. Hyperparathyroidism

b. Hereditary Gingival Fibromatosis

c. Down's Syndrome

d. Rickets

12 Which of the following is not a functional appliance

a. Frankel

b. Quad -helix

c. Clarks Twin Block

d. Herbst

13 A headgear appliance is used for

a. Anchorage

b. Traction

c. Both Anchorage and Traction

d. Neither Anchorage or Traction

14 Which of the following materials is not used for arch wires

a. Stainless Steel

b. Beta Titanium

c. Nickel Titanium

d. Vitalium

15 Which condition is appropriately treated at an early stage

a. Posterior crossbite 'lith a functional shift

b. Deviated midline in the absence of functional shift

c. Mild crowding of lower permanent incisors .

d. Two deciduous molars in crossbite

16 A " Poor man's" Cephalometric analysis is performed via a

a. Dental Cast Analysis

b. Facial Profile analysis

c. Photographic analysis

d. Full faceanalysis

17 Which of the following vould provide the most valuable information to the orthodontist In predicting the time of pubertal growth spurt

a. A wrist-hand radiograph

b. Height --weight tables

c. Presence of secondary sexual characteristics

d. Stage of dental development

18 During a serial extraction case, which teeth are NOT typically removed?

a. Primary canines

b. Primary first molars

c. Primary first premolars

d. Primary seco'nd molars

19 Once bone fonned. it grows by

a. Intcrstial growth only

b. Appositional growth only

c. Both appositional and interstial growth

d. Degenerative changes into bony structures

20 In vhich region the bone deposition is responsible for the Lengthening of maxillary arch

a. Palate

b. Tuherosity

c. Incisor

d. Zygomatic

21 Which of the following is the least important diagnostic aid in recognizing the early stage of gingivitis?

a. Bleeding upon probing

b. Gingival color

c. Pocket depths

d. Stippling of the gingival tissue

22 Which of the following needs to be evident in order to make a diagnosis of periodontitis?

a. Bleeding

b. Pocket depths of 5 mm or more

c. Radiographic evidence of bone loss

d. A change in tissue color and tone

23 Which of the following occlusal conditions would exert lowest amount of biting force under normal circumstances?

a. Complete denture resting on soft tissues

b. Complete dentures supported by implants

c. Fully dentate occlusion

d. Maxillary complete denture opposing natural teeth

24 Highest rate of implant failure occurs in

a. Type I bone

b. Type 2 bone

c. Type 3 bone

d. Type 4 bone

25 The greatest esthetic challenge for the restorative dentist occurs in the patient having a

a. High smile line, thick periodontal biotype

b. High smile line, thin periodontal biotype

c. Low smile line, thin periodontal biotype

d. low smile line, thick periodontal biotype

26 Which of the following conditions is not a contra-indication to dental implant placement?

a. Diminished healing capacity ofpatients tissues

b. Current chemotherapy for the treatment of cancer

c. Advanced patient age

d. History of radiation therapy to the maxillofacial complex

27 Gingival fibres consist of

a. Type I collagen

b. Type II collagen

c. Type III collagen

d. Type IV collagen

28 Cellular cementum in contrast to acellular cementum is

a. Cementum that is resorbing

b. Newly formed cementum

c. That part of the cementum that is adjacent to the enamel

d. Cementum that contain cementocytes

29 Which two bacteria are the most common bacteria in endodontic infections?

a. Porphyromonas species and Bacteroides melaninogenica

b. Eubacterium and Fusobacterium

c. Actinomycetes and Spirochetes

d. Wolinella and Veillonella species

30 Which of the following are not found in the pulp?

a. Reticulin fibres

b. Collagen fibres

c. Proprioceptor nerve fibres

d. Myelinated nerve fibres

31 The absence of which layer of dentin predisposes it to internal resorption by cells present in the pulp?

a. Mantle dentin

b. Predentin

c. Circumpulpal dentin

d. Secondary dentin

32 Which of the following is the most accurate definition of a phoenix abscess?

a. An acute apical periodontitis

b. A suppurative apical periodontitis

c. An acute exacerbation of a chronic apical periodontitis

d. A chronic state of an acute apical periodontitis

33 A patient presents with an acute periapical abscess. Which of the following tests could have a positive response?

a. Hot test

b. Electric pulp test

c. Cold test

d. Percussion

34 The ideal amount of dentin required between an amalgam restoration and the pulp for insulation is

a. 0.5mm

b.1.0mm

c.1.5mm

d.2.0mm

35 Delayed expansion of amalgam restoration is more likely to be associated with

a. Over trituration and condensation

b. High residual mercury .

c. The contamination of amalgam by moisture during trituration and condensation

d. Failure to use cavity varnish

36 Which tooth requires special attention when preparing the occlusal aspect for restoration?

a. Mandibular first bicuspid

b. Mandibular second bicuspid

c. Maxillary first molar

d. Maxillary 11rst bicuspid

37 When removing caries, which of the following layers of dentin are affected, but not infected and therefore do not need to be removed?

a. Turbid dentin

b. Transparent dentin

c. Sub-transparent dentin

d. Infected dentin

38 The initiation of dental caries requires a high proportion of

a. Lactobacillus within saliva

b. Lactobacillus within dental plaque

c. Streptococcus mutans within dental plaque

d. Streptococcus mutans within saliva

39 On your crown insertion appointment, you notice that the margins are open when you attempt to seat the crown in mouth. Which of the following should you check first?

a. The proximal contacts

b. The occlusal contacts

c. For a void on the crowns interior

d. For a nodule on crowns interior

40 A sedative often used in management of anxious pediatric dental patient IS

a. Pentobarbitol

b. Secobarbitol

c. Chloral hydrate

d. Meperidine

41 Ester type local anesthetics are metabolized in

a. Liver

b. Plasma

c. Lungs

d. Kidneys

42 Which antibiotic is not only effective against most staphylococci, aerobic and anaerobic streptococci, but is most effective in treating infections due to bacteroides species?

a. Penicillin VK

b. Erythromycin

c. Clindamycin

d. Cephalexin

43 For dry heat sterilization at a temperature of 160 how long does it take to sterilize instruments?

a. 5 minutes

b. 20 minutes

c. 40 minutes

d. 120 minutes

44 Which type of pathogens provide the ultimate test for efficacy of sterilization?

a. Bacteria

b. Spore forming

c. Virus

d. Fungi

45 The proportion of existing cases of disease in a population at one point in time or during a specified period of time is termed as

a. Incidence

b. Epidemiology

c. Prevalence

d.Frequency

46 A curette designed to scale and root plane anterior teeth with deep pockets will have

a. Short, straight shank

b. Short, angled shank

c. Long, angled shank

d. Long, straight shank

47 Pleasure's Concept is associated with

a. Balanced occlusion

b. Organic occlusion J

c. Lingualised occlusiom

d. Articulation concepts 1

48 Discrepancies in occlusion of denture can be clearly detected from

a. Observation at denture insertion phase

b. Masticatory efficiency

c. Clicking sound at the temporomanibular joint

d. Remounting procedure of denture

49 " Squint test", is used as a guide for selecting

a. Shade of the teeth

b. Shape of the teeth

c. Length of the teeth

d. Tooth proportions

50 A functional cusp bevel in the preparation of a tooth for Full Crown or Fixed partial denture retainer ,provides for

a. Improving Retention

b. Improving Stability

c. Better Esthetics

d. Bulk of restoration for strength

51 Color temperature of light source for shade selection process should be

a. 45K

b.55K

c.65K

d.75K

52 Post cementation I luting pain on biting is most likely due to

a. Occlusal overload

b. Sensitivity to cement

c. Periapical abscess

d. Short margins

53 Base metal casting alloys as compared to Noble metal casting alloys for cast restorations

a. Base metal alloys are softer to finish

b. Base metal alloys are less dense

c. Base metal alloys are more easily hardened

d. Base metal alloys are more resistant to corrosion

54 Which of the following is not a radiographic sign of trauma from occlusion

a. Hypercementosis

b. Root Resorption

c. Periodontal pockets

d. Widening of periodontal ligament space

55 The ideal time period from placing the Indirect Pulp cap until the reopening the tooth to remove the remaining decay is

a. 3-4 months

b. 7-10 days

c. 2-3 weeks

d. 1 year

56 Pulpal pain, either spontaneous or elicited by an irritant, that lingers for more than 10 -15 seconds suggest

a. Pulpal necrosis

b. Irreversible pulpitis

c. Pukpal hypereJnia

d. Apical periodontitis

57 The most effective and most tolerable topical fluoride is

a. 0.2 Sodium Flouride

b. Stannous fluoride

c. Acidulated phosphate fluoride

d. Sodium fluoride

58 Which is the principal hormone for calcium regulation?

a. Cacitonin

b. Parathyroid hormone

c. Thyroxin

d. Vasopressin! ADH

59 Intrinsic factor, essential for the absorption ofvitamin B12 in ileum, is secreted by the:

a. Chief cells

b. Parietal cells

c. Gastric cells

d. Mucus cells

60 Which of the following enzymes is responsible for dissolving blood clots?

a. Prothrombin

b. Thrombin

c. Fibrinogen

d. Plasmin

61 Pernicious anemia is caused by the mal-absorption of

a. Vitamin A

b. Vitamin B12

c. Vitamin C

d. Vitamin E

62 Which of the following is not the prominent toxic effect of mercury

a. Xerostomia

b. Irritability

c. Loosened teeth

d. Tremors

63 Immediate dentures should be preferably relined after:

a. 1 month and 3 months post extraction

b. 4 months and 7 months post extraction

c. 5 months and 10 months post extraction

d. 1 year and 2 years post extraction

64 The incisal edges of maxillary teeth should touch the wet/ dry line of the lower lip while creating

a. "Th" sound

b. "F" and "V" sounds

c. "P" and "B" soumds

d. "S" sound

65 Posterior Palatal Seal, for maxillary denture

a. Is placed 3 mm posterior to vibrating line

b. Is not necessary when fabricating a complete denture on a patient with flat palate

c. Is notnecessary if a metal base is used

d. Will vary in outline and depth according to the palatal form of the patient

66 A reverse 3/4th crown is most frequently fabricated for a

a. Maxillary molar

b. Mandibular molar

c. Mandibular premolar

d. Maxillary premolar

67 "Strain Hardening" or "Work hardening" are best described as

a. Hardening deformation) of a metal at room temperature

b. Hardening( Deformation) of a metal at very high temperature

c. Softening of metal by controlled heating and cooling

d. Softening a metal at room temperature

68 Burkitts Lymphoma is associated with the

a. Herpes virus

b. Epstein-Barr virus

c. Cytomegalovirus

d. Human papillomavirus

69 The most common neoplasm seen in AIDS patient is

a. Non-Hodgkins lymphoma

b. Squamous cell carcinoma

c. Basal cell carcinoma

d. Kaposi's sarcoma

70 The prime factor that initiates Myofascial pain dysfunction syndrome (MPDS) is

a. Trauma

b. Muscle spasm

c. Periodontal disease

d. Tumour

71 Which ofthese lesions are typically within soft tissue and may mimic inflammatory lesions of odontogenic origin

a. Median alveolar cyst

b. Globulomaxillary cyst

c. Nasolabial cyst

d. Nasopalatine cyst

72 MassofhistoJogically normal tissuepresentinanabnormallocation iscalleda

a. Teratoma

b. Choristoma

c. Hamartoma

d. None of the above

73 Cretinism is deficiency disease caused by the congenital absence of

a. Thyroxine

b. Insulin

c. Calcitonin

d. Epinephrine

74 The sum of the mesiodistal widths of the primary molars in anyone quadrant is

a. 5-10 mm greater than the permanent teeth that succeed them----premolars

b. 2-5 mm less than the permanent teeth that succeed them----premolars

c. 2-5 mm greater than the permanent teeth that succeed them----premolars

d. 5-10 mm less than the permanent teeth that succeed them----premolars

75 Which of the following is not the principal characteristics of'Attention deficit Hyperactivity disorder' (AOHD)

a. Inattention

b. Mental retardation

c. Hyperactivity

d. Impulsivity

76 " Koplik Spots" are associated with

a. Smallpox (Variola)

b. Gemlan measles (Rubella)

c. Mumps

d. Measles (Rubeola)

77 At age of 6 yrs a child's head is what percentage of its adult size

a. 30%

b. 50%

c. 80%

d. 90%

78 Nomlal Prothrombin time IS

a. 7 seconds ± 2 seconds

b. 11 seconds ± 2 seconds

c. 14seconds ± 2 seconds

d. 25seconds ± 2 seconds

79 In patient with LefortII fracture, common finding is paresthesia over distribution of the

a. Infraorbital nerve

b. Inferior alveolar nerve

c. Mylohyoid nerve

d. Hypoglossal nerve

80 Secretions of sub lingual gland is predominantly

a. Mucous

b. Serous

c. Mixed

d. None of the above

81 Major arterial supply to Temporomanibular joint is derived from

a. Facial artery

b. Angular anery

c. Occipital artey

d. Superficial temporal artery and maxillary artery

82 Incipient carious lesions, after sealant application

a. Progressively increase in size

b. Are arrested

c. Spread rapidly into interproximal areas

d. Remain the same

83 RPI clasp is a type of

a. Gingivally approaching clasp

b. Occlually approaching clasp

c. Mixed clasp

d. Infrabulge clasp

84 Optimum Location of finish line for a All ceramic Anterior Full Veneer Crown should be

a. Supragingival

b. Subgingival

c. Equigingival

d. Subgingival labially and supra gingival lingually or palatally

85 Which class of antibodies constitutes about 75% of the antibodies ofa nonnal human being':

a. IgA

b. IgD

c. IgE

d. IgG

86 "Spoon Denture" may be indicated for which classification of partially dentulous arch

a. Kennedy class IV

b. Kennedy class I

c. Kennedy class II

d. Kennedy class III

87 Porcelain etching for ceramic repair involves chemically which material

a. Orthophosphoric acid 37%

b. Hydrofluoric acid

c. Phosphoric acid 33%

d. Maleic acid 20%

88 Guide Planes are

a. Proximal surfaces of distal surfaces of fixed partial dentures

b. Proximal surfaces abutment teeth parallel to path of insertion and removal

c. Proximal surfaces of retainers of RPD

d. Vertical anns of RPD retainers

89 Which luting cement is not preferred for All Ceramic restorations

a. Resin cements

b. Glass inomer cements

c. Polycarboxylate cements

d. Resin reinforced Glass Ionomer cement

90 Caries activity is not directly proportional to

a. The consistency of fermentable carbohydrates ingested

b. The quantity of fermentable carbohydrates ingested

c. The frequency of ingesting fermentable carbohydrates

d. The oral retention of fermentable carbohydrates ingested

91 Which one ofthese is not a component in implant supported crown

a. Abutment

b. Analogue

c. Impression coping

d. Pontic

92 Which ofthe following is not the response of histamine release due to allergic reaction

a. Vasoldilatation (esp. arterioles)

b. Bronchoconstriction

c. Increased blood pressure

d. Secretion ofHCL

93 Which of the tooth would have two canals most of the times?

a. Tooth no. 15

b. Tooth no. 24

c. Tooth no. 35

d. Tooth no. 45

94 Persistent radiolucency in the peripical area ofendodontically treated maxillary first molar could be explained by

a. second mesibuccal canal was not located

b. second distobuccal canal was not located

c. second palatal canal was not located

d. It takes more than 12 months for the bone to heal

95 Which tooth is most likely to have a curved root?

a. Maxillary central incisor

b. Maxillary lateral incisor

c. Maxillary canine

d. Mandibular central incisor

96 Tissue conditioners are used for completely edentulous patients

a. To remodel the alveolar bone favorably

b. To bring the tissue tone to normal

c. To alleviate any signs of tissue inflammation before a new denture is fabricated

d. Showing signs of oral candidiasis

97 Diagnosis of ulceration on tongue persisting for more than 2 weeks should be based on

a. Incisional biopsy

b. Exfoliative cytology

c. Clinical signs and symptoms

d. Blood biochemistry

98 Which one ofthe materials is not used for Dental Implants in clinical use

a. Commercially pure titanium

b. Grade 5 titanium

c. Titanium-6AI-4V alloy

d. Co-Cr-Mo alloy

99 What type ofocclusion scheme is preferred for maxillary complete denture opposing Mandibular natural dentition

a. Bilaterally Balanced occlusion

b. Unilaterally balanced occlusion


c. Canine guided occlusion

d. Group function

100 Which one of following communicable diseases commonly infects dental health personnel

a. AIDS

b. Hepatitis B

c. Hepatatis C

d. SARS