1. The key to profit maximization is that the firms must choose that price-output combination where the marginal revenue
A. exceeds the marginal cost
B. is equal to the marginal cost
C. is less than the marginal cost
D. independent ofthe marginal cost .
2. Identify which is NOT an exception to the law of demand among the following
A. Shares
B. obsolete goods
C. Inferior goods
D. Comfort goods
3. Collusion model of price -output determination is used in
A. Perfect Competition
B. Monopoly
C. Monopolistic competition
D. Oligopoly
4. The pricing practice used by firms in which a product is priced low to take care of the demand of other products is called
A. Full Cost Pricing
B. Marginal Cost Pricing
C. Administered Pricing
D. Loss Leader Pricing
5. The behavior ofcost to the changes in output when the plant size is changing is
A. Short run cost -output relationship
B. Intermediate cost -output relationship
C. Long run cost -output relationship
D. Price -output relationship
6. Which of the following best describes quantitative research?
A. the collection of non-numerical data
B. an attempt to confirm the researcher's hypotheses
C. research that is exploratory
D. research that attempts to generate a new theory



7. Which ofthe following can best be described as a categorical variable?
A. Age
B. Annual income
C. Grade point average
D. Religion
8. A positive correlation is present when
A. Two variables move in opposite directions.
B. Two variables move in the same direction.
C. One variable goes up and one goes down
D. Several variables never change.
9. Which of the following statements are true?
A. The larger the sample size, the greater the sampling error
B. The more categories or breakdowns you want to make in your data analysis, the larger the sample needed
C. The fewer categories or breakdowns you want to make in your data analysis, the larger the sample needed
D. As sample size decreases, so does the size ofthe confidence interval
10. The nonrandom sampling type that involves selecting a convenience sample from a populationwith a specific set ofcharacteristics for yourresearch study is called
A. Convenience sampling
B. Quota sampling
C. Purposive sampling
D. Snowball sampling
11. There are three basic approaches that people tend to adopt when considering ethical issues in research. Which one ofthe following is not one ofthe approaches?
A. Ethical skepticism
B. Deontology
C. Ontology
D. Utilitarianism
12. A question during an interview such as "Why do you feel that way?" is known as
A. Probe
B. Filter question
C. Response
D. Pilot

13. Analysis of covariance is:
A. A statistical technique that can be used to help equate groups on specific variables
B. A statistical technique that can be used to control sequencing effects
C. A statistical technique that substitutes for random assignment to groups
D. Adjusts scores on the independent variable to control for extraneous variables
14. "Comparing document to each other to determine whether they provide the same information or reach the same conclusion" is known as
A. Contextualization
B. Sourcing
C. Corroboration
D. Negative criticism
15. The statement of purpose in a research study should:
A. Identify the design ofthe study
B. Identify the intent or objective ofthe study
C. Specify the type of people to be used in the study
D. Describe the study
16. Approximatelywhatpercentages ofscoresfall withinone standarddeviation'ofthe mean in
a normal distribution?
A.34%
B.95%
C.99%
D.68%

17. standard deviation is:
A. The square root ofthe variance
B. A measure of variability
C. An approximate indicator ofhow numbers vary from the mean
D. All ofthe above
]8. are used when you want to visually examine the relationship between two quantitative variables.
A. Bar graphs
B. Pie graphs
C. Line graphs
D. Scatter plots
19. Which of the following statements sounds like a null hypothesis?
A. The coin is not fair
B. There is a correlation in the population
C. There is no difference between male and female incomes in the population
D. The defendant is guilty
20. A is a numerical characteristic of a sample and a IS a numerical characteristic of a population.
A. Sample, population
B. Population, sample
C. Statistic, parameter
D. Parameter, statistic
21. The concept of Management "getting things done by other people" is described by
A. Mescon
B. Marry Parker Follett
C. Robinsion
D. John Harvey Johes
22. According to which of the following theories, leaders may use different styles with different members of the same work-group?
A. Path-goal leadership
B. Vroom-Jago-Yetton model
C. Leader-membt?r exchange theory
D. Situational leadership theory
23. Max Weber's ideals is based on
A. Taylorism
B. Structure of the Organization
C. Tilne study and Motion Study
D. Scientific Management
24. In Taylor's scheme of functional foremanship, who lays down the important work to be formed?
A. Speed boss
B. Gang Boss
C. Route Clerk
D. Repair Boss


25. is established on the result of the spontaneous efforts of individuals and groups to influence the conditions oftheir experience.
A. Fonnal Organization
B. lnfonnal Organization
C. Functional Organization
D. Committee Organization
Section-B
26. In a materials processing operation, which of the following process type is associated with the highest voiume and iowest variety?
A. Job Shop
B. Batch Process
C. Mass Process
D. Continuous process
27. Which ofthese layout types is most associated with a project process?
A. Fixed position layout
B. Process layout
C. Product layout
D. Cellular Layout
28. An operations strategy is created directly from the strategy l.. Corporate Strategy
B. Marketing Strategy
C. Business strategy
D. Human Resource strategy
29. Cycle inventory is required as:
A. Compensation for differences in the timing of supply and demand
B. One or more stages in the operation cannot supply all the items it produces
simultaneously

C. Material cannot be transported instantaneously between the point of supply and the point of demand
D. Compensation for the uncertainties inherent in supply and demand
30. Which ofthe following is not a capacity planning decision option?
A. Promotion and advertising
B. Subcontracting
C. Layoffs
D. Building a new plant

31. When examining control charts, variations of characterIstic measurements that are within control limits are assumed to be the result of
A. Chance
B. Defective input materials
C. Assignable causes
D. Poor machine tolerances
32. The cost ofquality is
A. An expression ofan organization's performance in quality in financial terms.
B. The difference between customers' expectations ofa product or service and their
perceptions of their experience of it

C. A proactive approach towards quality management by seeking to prevent defects ever being produced
D. The inspection and testing ofthe outputs from a transformation process
33. Given an actual demand of 103, a previous forecast value of 99, and an alpha of 0.4, the exponential smoothing forecast for the next period would be
A.94.6
B. 97.4
C. 100.6
D. 101.6
34. A regional bookstore chain is about to build a distribution center that is centrally located for its eight retail outlets. It will most likely employ which ofthe following tools ofanalysis?
A. Assembly line balancing
B. Load-distance analysis
C. Center-of-gravity model
D. Linear programming
35. Which one ofthe following refers to the length oftime needed to complete ajob?
A. Work sampling methods
B. Work measurement
C. Job design
D. Method analysis
36. Insider trading:
A. Contributes to market efficiency because all information is reflected in the price of securities
B. Is illegnl
C Is protected against by the SEBI

D. lIas-no negative ilnpact 011 stockholders

2b

37. The price earnings ratio ofa firm is found by
A. Dividing the market price per share of stock by the earnings per share
B. Multiplying the market price per share ofstock by the payout ratio
C. Dividing the earning per share by the market price per share ofstock
D. Dividing the market price per share ofstock by the book value per share
38. A cash budget is summary of for specific time period
A. Revenues and expenses
B. Assets and liabilities
Ca$h receipts and disbursement

D. Profit plus depreciation
39. An increase in the average collection period will
A. Decrease the account receivable balances
B. Reduce the ratio ofbad debts to sales
C. Reduce the average age ofaccounts receivable
D. Increase the accounts receivable balance
40. Which ofthe following is typically the largest source ofshort term credit for a firm
A. Bank loans
B. Commercial paper
C. Factorial
D. Trade credit
41. A company issues bonds with a coupon rate of 12%. The market-required rate of return on the bonds is currently 9%. The bonds will be priced:
A. Atpar
B. Belowpar
C. Above par
D. Above and below par
42. The value obtained on disposal ofan asset is called
A. Realizable value
B. Replacement value
C. Economic value
D. Historical value
43. AccordingtotheWilcoxmodel,the bestindicatorofthefinancialhealth ofafirm is
A. The profitability ratios
B. The coverage ratios
C. Net liquidation value ofthe firm
D. Market capitalization ofthe firm
44. Which of the following best describes the situation in which a firm is having problem meeting its financial obligations?
A. Business risk
B. Legalbankruptcy
c.
Technical bankruptcy

D.
Financial distress


45. Which of the following long-term sources of finance puts maximum restraint on managerial freedom?
A. Retained earnings
B. Equity capital
c.
Preference capital

D.
Term loans


46. Setting call objectives is done during which ofthe following stages ofthe selling process?
A. Prospecting
B. Preapproach
C. Approach
D. Handling objections
47. The is a person within a reference group who, because of special skills, knowledge, personality, or other characteristics, exerts influence on others.
A. Facilitator
B. Referent actor
C.. Opinion leader

D. Social role player
48. The use of price points for reference to different levels of quality for a company's related products is typical of which product-mix pricing strategy?
A. Optional-product pricing
B. Captive-product pricing
C. By-product pricing
D. Product line pricing
49. Cognitive dissonance occurs in which stage ofthe buyer decision process model?
A. Need recognition
B. Information search
C. Evaluation of alternatives
D. Post purchase behavior
50. Successful service companies focus their attention on both their customers and their employees. They understand which links service firm profits with employee customer satisfaction.
A. Internal marketing
B. Service-profit chains
C. Interactive marketing
D. Service differentiation
51. All of the following are criticisms leveled against marketing by critics EXCEPT:
A. Harming consumers through high prices
B. Harming consumers through deceptive practices
C. Harming consumers through high-pressure selling
D. Harming consumers through too many product choices
52. In evaluating messages for advertising, telling how the product is better than the competing brands aims at making the ad
A. Meaningful
B. Distinctive
C. Believable
D. Remen1bered
53. When an importing country sets limits on the amount of goods it will accept in certain product categories it is called
A. Quota
B. Barrier
C. Tariff
D. Embargo
54. When producers, wholesalers, and retailers act as a unified system, they comprise
A. Conventional marketing system
B. Power-based marketing system
C. Horizontal marketing system
D. Vertical marketing system
55. All of the following factors can affect the attractiveness of a market segment EXCEPT:
A. The presence ofmany strong and aggressive competitors
B. The likelihood of government monitoring
C. Actual or potential substitute products
D. The power of buyers in the segment
56. The eventual goal ofS-HRM is to contribute to
A. Organizational Performance
B. Profitability
C. Customer Satisfaction
D. Employee Satisfaction
57. The objective of Human Resource Planning is to
A. Develop strategies that will result in optimum contribution by human resources
B. Assist and advice line managers in accomplishing the basic goals
C. Demonstrate that women or minorities are employed in proportion to their representation in the firm's relevant labor market
D. Make an employment decision, but not on the basis of legitimate job-related factors
58. The document that provides information regarding the'tasks,duties and responsibilities of a job is called
A. Job identification
B. Job specification
C. Job description
D. Job evaluation
59. Which of the following HR functions is the basic element ofrecruitment?
A. Attract the applicants for a particular post
B. Select the best one among all applicants
C. Train the recruits as per organizational requirements
D. Fire the non-performing employees
60. The extent to which an employment selection test provides consistency is known as
A. Reliability
B. Dependability
C. Consistency
D. Validity
61. What is meant by the term appraisal?
A. A system used to improve the performance ofworkers
B. The main way in which an employee's wages are determined
C. The evaluation of an individual employee's performance
D. A systetTI of reward points offered by retailers to attract customer loyalty

62. Reluctance to do a particular task reflects
A. Values
B. Satisfaction
C. Attitude
D. Respect
63. Which of the following measures are taken to assess employees' satisfaction and their attitude towards the training programme?
A. Continuous feedback
B. Profitability rate
C. Market share
D. Productivity levels
64. Evaluation of training programs is conducted
A. At the initial stage while designing the training programs
B. Prior to the need assessment phase
C. Parallel to designing the training content
D. At the last stage oftraining
65. In the balanced Scorecard, customer satisfaction, retention and market share in target segments are all measures of
A. Customer's perspective
B. Financial perspective
C. Business process perspective
D. Leaming and innovation
66. Which strategy would be effective when the new products have a counter cyclical sales pattern compared to an organization's present products?
A. Forward integration
B. Retrenchment
C. Horizontal diversification
D. Market penetration
67. The first option that should be considered for firms in Quadrant II of the Grand Strategy Matrix is the strategy.
A. Integration
B. Intensive
C. Defensive
D. Diversification

68. What is the most frequent internal motive for a strategic alliance?
A. Resource need
B. Risk limitation
C. Cost minimization
D. Current poor performance
69. According to Porter, if an organization does not follow either a cost reduction strategy or a differentiation strategy they are:
A. Hybrid
B. Stuck in the middle
C. Typical
D. No frills
70. A strategy that can exploit local differences and achieve global efficiencies is called:
A. Transnational
B. Global
C. Multi domestic
D. International
71. Continued membership in a group will usually require
A. supporting the group leader
B. conforming to group norms
C. encouraging cohesiveness in the group
D. developing a status system
72. Concerning organizational cultures,
A. a strong culture is a more productive environment
B. a weak culture is a more productive environment
C. the specific culture that contributes to positive effectiveness is well known
D. the stronger the culture, the more influential it is on employee behavior
73. The field of organizational behavior examines such questions as the nature of leadership, effective team development, and
A. interpersonal conflict resolution; motivation of individuals
B. organizational control; conflict management
C. motivation ofindividuals; planning
D. planning; development
74. People who engage in tend to perceive others according to what they themselves are like, rather than according to what the person being observed is really like.
A. stereotyping
B. halo effect
c.
projection

D.
contrast effects


75. An individual who is aggressively involved in a chronic incessant struggle to achieve more and more less and less time is alan:
A. TypeA.
B. Type B.
C. Self-monitor.
D. Extrovert.