Exam Details
Subject | Common Cardio-Vascular Diseases-II | |
Paper | ||
Exam / Course | Post Graduate Diploma in Clinical Cardiology | |
Department | School of Health Science (SOHS) | |
Organization | indira gandhi national open university | |
Position | ||
Exam Date | December, 2015 | |
City, State | new delhi, |
Question Paper
1. The peak incidence of Rheumatic Fever occurs in the following age group:
5 years
5 -15 years
15 -25 years
25 -35 years
2. Child is said to be suffering from 'Juvenile' mitral stenosis if the age of child is:
5 years
5 -15 years
15 -25 years
25 -35 years
3. Following statements are true except:
Organism implicated for initiation in Rheumatic Fever is Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus
The long held opinion that only streptococcal pharyngitis and not streptococcal skin infections may be followed by Acute Rheumatic Fever has been challenged
0.3 percent of patients suffering from Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus throat infections develop Acute Rheumatic Fever
In Indian patients with acute rheumatic fever, genetic linkage to Human Leucocyte Antigen -DL7 has been demonstrated
4. Following statements are true except:
Group A streptococcus produces somatic and extracellular antigens
Group specific polysaccharide of GAS wall is antigenically akin to glycoprotein found in human and bovine cardiac valves
M protein of GAS cross reacts with human heart tissues particularly sacrolemmal membrane proteins and cardiac myosin
In chorea, antibodies directed against GAS cell membrane cross react with tissues in the frontal lobe of the brain
5. Following statements are true except:
Acute Rheumatic Fever is considered a multisystem autoimmune disease
Exact role of hot cross reacting antibodies in the pathogenesis of ARF is not clear
C3 C4 complements are reduced in ARF
CD4 CDs cell ratio is raised in ARF
6. A 23 years old lady has presented for the first time in your OPD. She has been diagnosed as stable severe mitral stenosis and mild mitral regurgitation. As per 2002 -2003, WHO criteria for diagnosis of Rheumatic Heart Disease, she should fulfil following manifestations of Revised Jones Criteria
One major manifestation and two minor manifestations
Two minor manifestations
One minor manifestation with supporting evidence of antecedent group A streptococcal infection
Does not require any other criteria
7. Following statements about carditis in Acute Rheumatic Fever are true except:
Around 40 percent cases of ARF develop carditis
About 66 percent of ARF patients with carditis develop Rheumatic Heart Disease on follow up
Tricuspid Regurgitation is the commonest valvular lesion during ARF
Pericarditis, Pericardial effusion and arrhythmias may also occur in rheumatic carditis
8. Following statements about Pathogenesis of Acute Rheumatic Fever are true except:
Pathologic hall mark of rheumatic carditis is Aschoff body
Aschoff body comprises of perivascular infiltrates of large cells arranged in a rosette form around a vascular area of fibrinoid necrosis
Aschoff bodies are usually seen in Acute Stage of Rheumatic carditis
On gross examination, on opening of left atrium, one sees a thickened patch of tissue just above the base of posterior mitral leaflet termed as 'Mac Callum's patch'
9. Following statements in the setting of Acute Rheumatic Fever are true except:
Polyarthritis is the most common manifestation
Subcutaneous nodules are present in 3-6 percent of cases
Erythema marginatum is a macular, evanescent and pruritic rash mostly on trunk and arms but never on face
Chorea may be the only manifestation of ARF
10. Following statements about diagnosis of Acute Rheumatic Fever are true except:
One must look for supportive evidence for antecedent Group A streptococci infection
In about 80 percent of ARF patients, Anti-streptolysin 0 titres are raised
AS 0 titres are at peak usually 3 months after streptococcal infection
Anti-deoxyribonuclease 13 titre remains elevated longer than Anti-streptolysin 0 titres
11. Following statements about course and prognosis of Acute Rheumatic Fever are true except:
The course and ultimate prognosis of Acute Rheumatic Fever is usually directly related to the severity of polyarthritis
The course and prognosis also depends upon recurrence of rheumatic fever
There is always a tendency to develop rheumatic fever with repeated group A streptococci infection
There is a greater chance for recurrence in young children and in the first 3 years after the first attack
12. One of the following drug in following dosage is recommended for secondary prophylaxis for Acute Rheumatic Fever except:
Benzathine Penicillin 1.2 million units every 3 weeks (weight 30 mg)
Penicillin V 500 mgm b.l.d daily
Erythromycin stearate 250 mgm b.l.d. daily
Sulfadiazine 1 gmjkg (0.5 grnjkg in children)
13. Following statements about Infective Endocarditis are true except
IE is a microbial infection of the endothelial surface of the heart
Infection may occur at the site of septal defect chordae tendinae, mural endocardium, heart valve leaflets
Mural Endocardium is more commonly involved
Prosthetic valve may prOVide a nidus for infection, as well as barrier to eradication
14. Following statements about Infective Endocarditis are true except:
Infective endocarditis usually occurs more frequently in men
The age specific incidence of endocarditis increases progressively after 30 years of age
Predisposing conditions cannot be identified in 25 to 45 percent of patients
Among neonates, infective endocarditis typically involves the mitral valve of structurally normal hearts.
15. Commonest organism incriminated in native valve endocarditis in the age group of 2 months to 15 years is
Streptococci
S. Aureus
Enterococci
Gram negative bacteria
16. Following statements about Prosthetic Valve Endocarditis are true except:
The risk of PVE is greatest during the initial 6 months after valve surgery
During the initial months after valve implantation, bio prosthetic valves are at greater risk of infection than mechanical valve
PVE represents 7 to 25 percent of all infective endocarditis cases
PVE can be broadly divided into two groups based on the time of onset of infection after valve surgery -early and late
17. In the setting of Prosthetic valve endocarditis, within two months of surgery, commonest organism incriminated is
Staphylococcus aureus
Coagulase -negative staphylococci
Gram negative baccilli -P. Aeruginosa
Fungi -candida species
18. Of the following, commonest clinicial sign of infective endocarditis is
Fever
Changing or new murmur
Embolic Event
Clubbing
19. Following clinical features in infective endocarditis are due to Immune mediated injury:
Glomerulonephritis
Osler's nodes
Janeway lesions
Roth's spots
20. Following statements about the cardiac manifestations of Infective Endocarditis are true except:
Murmur is present in about 80 -85 percent of cases
Congestive Heart failure develops in 30 -40 percent of patients
Heart failure due to mitral valve dysfunction progresses more rapidly than does that due to aortic valve dysfunction
Embolic to a coronary artery occur in of patients and may result in myocardial infarction
21. As per modified Duke Criteria of Infective Endocarditis, patient is said to suffering from 'Definite' Infective Endocarditis if he/she meets the following combinations of clinical criteria except:
Two major criteria
One major and two minor criteria
One major and three minor criteria
Five minor criteria
22. Following statements about Infective Endocarditis are true except:
Systemic Emboli are among the most common clinical sequelae of IE
Embolic often antedate diagnosis of IE
Incidence of embolic events decreases promptly during administration of effective antibiotic therapy
Embolic stroke syndromes, predominantly involving the anterior cerebral artery territory, occurs in 15 to 20 percent of patients with IE
23. Following statements about Fungal Infective Endocarditis are true except:
Is associated with high mortality (Survival Rate
Is associated with large bulky vegetations
Candida and Aspergillus species are the most common causes
Blood cultures are usually positive incase of Aspergillus whereas they are rarely positive with Candida.
24. In the setting of IE, following features suggest need of emergent (same day) surgery
Acute aortic regurgitation plus preclosure of mitral valve
Sinus of Valsalva abscess ruptured into right heart
Rupture into pericardial sac
Fungal Endocarditis
25. As per modified Duke criteria of Infective Endocarditis, following clinical criteria are considered as minor criteria except:
Predisposing heart condition or intravenous drug use
Fever 38°C
Major Arterial Emboli
Typical micro-organism for infective endocarditis grown from two separate blood cultures
26. Following statements are true except:
Minimum Inhibitory Concentration of the antibiotic is the lowest concentration that inhibits growth of the causative organism
Minimum Bactericidal Concentration of the antibiotic is the lowest concentration that decreases a standard inoculum of organisms 99.9 percent during 48 hours
For the vast majority of streptococci and staphylococci, the MIC and MBC of penicillins, cephalosporins or vancomycin are the same or differ only by a factor of two to four
organisms for which MBC of these antibiotics is 10 fold or greater than MIC are occasionally encountered
27. In the setting of Infective Endocarditis, following statements about mycotic aneurysms are true except
They result from septic embolization of vegetations to the arterial vasa vasorum or to the 'intraluminal space.
Arterial branching points favour the impaction of emboli
They occur more frequently in visceral arteries followed by intracranial arteries
Intra-abdominal mycotic aneurysms are often asymptomatic until leakage or rupture occurs.
28. Following statements about mitral valve Annulus are true except:
Annulus is a saddle shaped structure
Posteriorly it merges with aortic annulus while anteriorly there is a C shaped discrete fibrous annulus
Normal diameter is about 2.5 -3.5 cms
Normal motion and contraction contribute to the normal mitral valve function
29. Following statements about Mitral Stenosis are true except:
The predominant cause of MS is rheumatic fever
25% of all patients with Rheumatic Heart Disease have isolated MS
40% of all patients with RHD have combined MS and MR
Multivalve involvement is seen in 38% of MS patients with the aortic valve affected in about 35% and the tricuspid valve in about 30%.
30. Following statements about the Pathophysiology of Mitral valve obstruction are true except:
The transvalvular pressure gradient for any given valve area is a function of the square of the transvalvular flow rate
Doubling of flow rate doubles the pressures gradient
Increase in left atrial pressure would cause increase in the pulmonary artery wedge pressure
Increases in pulmonary artery wedge pressure would cause interstitial congestion and this presents as symptoms of dyspnea
31. Following statements about physical signs of mitral stenosis are true except:
Pulse is normal or low volume
With severe pulmonary artery hypertension, right ventricle may form the apex
First heart sound is loud except in calcific and nonpliable valve
Severity of mitral stenosis is directly proportional to A2 -OS distance
32. Following statements about echocardiographic score in mitral stenosis, used to predict outcome of Mitral Balloon Valvuloplasty are true except:
Echocardiographic score is based on valve thickness, calcification, mobility and subvalvular :thickening
Patients witlt an echocardiographic score of 8 or less have more favourable result from BMV than those with score higher than 8
Patient is said to have Grade 3 Subvalvular Thickening, if thickening of the chordal structures extends upto one third of the chordal length.
Patient is said to have grade 3 mobility, if the valve continues to move forward in diastole mainly from the base.
33. Following statements about Atrial Fibrillation in the setting of Mitral Stenosis are true except:
With increase in left atrial size, there are more chances of patient developing AF
Initially, AF may be paroxysmal, but later it becomes persistent and then chronic
Loss of Atrial contraction also contributes to decrease in mean left atrial pressure
Incidence of thromboembolic complications in AF due to rheumatic mitral stenosis is 17 times more than that seen in lone AF
34. Following statements are true except:
Congenital Mitral Regurgitation may be due to cleft mitral leaflet
Rheumatic involvement is the most important cause of mitral regurgitation in our country
Myxomatous mitral valve is characterized by deposition of mucopolysaccharides in the spongiosa layer
In idiopathic degeneration of chordae, usually anterior leaflets are involved and their rupture leads to mitral regurgitation
35. In compensated chronic mitral regurgitation, following statements are true except:
Left atrium is enlarged
Left ventricle is enlarged
Increased preload of left ventricle
Increased after load of left ventricle
36. In compensated chronic severe mitral regurgitation, 2nd heart sound is
Widely split
Normal split
Narrow split
Reverse split
37. Following statements about Aortic Stenosis are true except:
Congenital bicuspid aortic valve is one of the common congenital abnormality -about 8 percent
Congenital abnormalities of aortic valve may lead to unicuspid Aortic valve
Degenerative aortic valve disease that is seen increasingly in elderly shares common pathogenesis with atherosclerosis
Patient is often, the orifice size decreases from normal 3-4 cm^2 to 1.5cm^2
38. Following statements about physicaJ signs in aortic stenosis are true except:
A grade I murmur in the abscence of decompensation suggests mild lesion
A grade IV murmur almost always suggests severe aortic stenosis
In children and elderly, seleCtive conduction of high frequency sounds to apical area may give to murmw at apex
An early peaking loud grade ry murmur is specific to severe aortic stenosis
39. Patient is said to be suffering from severe mitral regurgitation if he/she meets the following criteria except
Regurgitant volume more tpan 60 ml per beat
Regurgitant fraction more than 40 percent
Effective orifice IIlore than 0.4 cm^2
Pulmonary vein systolic flow reversal
40. As per ACCjAHA guidelines for management of patients with severe aortic regurgitation, following are class I indications for Aortic Regurgitation except:
Symptomatic patients
Asymptomatic patients with EF 0.50 at rest
Asymptomatic patients undergoing CABG or surgery on Aorta or heart valves
Asymptomatic patients, Normal LV functions, EDD 75 mm, ESD 55 mm
41. Following statements about Pericardium are true except:
Pericardium consists of two layers
Parietal pericardium thickness may be upto 2.5 to 3.0 mm
The phrenic nerves lie over the parietal pericardium and supply most of it
The normal intrapericardial pressure can vary from 5 to 10 mm of Hg
42. Following statements about electrocardiogram in acute pericarditis are true except:
Four stages of evolution of ECG changes may occur
In stage there is ST segment elevation with concavity upwards
In stage II, there is T wave invertion
In stage IV, T wave normalizes
43. Following statements about size of the Pericardia:l Effusion(PE) are true except:
Small PE Mostly seen in anterior part of the heart
Moderate PE (100-500 ml) Seen all around the heart, width 1.0 cm
Large PE 500 ml) More than 1 cm in width all around
Tamponade -swinging motion of the heart, diastolic collapse of right ventricle and respiratory flow variation across the atrioventricular valves
44. Following statements about Pathophysiology of constrictive pericarditis are true except:
There is restriction of ventricular dilatation and diastolic filling of the ventricles
There is dissociation of intracardiac and intrathoracic pressures
Difference in diastolic pressure between the ventricles is more than 5 mm of Hg
There is systemic and pulmonary venous congestion
45. Following are the features of Arrhythmogenic Right Ventricular Cardiomyopathy (ARVC) except:
It is marked by myocardial cell loss with partial or total replacement of RV muscle by adipose and fibrous tissue
Clinical manifestations are seen in adolescence or early adulthood predominantly in males
ECG shows inverted T waves in right precordial leads
They develop reentrant ventricular tachyarrhythmias of RBBB configuration usually precipitated by exercise.
46. In constrictive pericarditis, following hemodynamic changes occur except:
Left ventricular pressure tracing shows square root sign
Equalization of diastolic pressure in all 4 chambers
Ventricular filling occurs only in early diastole
Jugular venous pressure is decreased
47. Which of the following hemodynamic aspects of constrictive pericarditis is incorrect?
There is dissociation of intracardiac and intrathoracic pressures
There is elevation of intracardiac diastolic pressures
Affects early filling phase of ventricles
Causes equalization of diastolic pressures in all 4 chambers
48. The following are related to severity of mitral stenosis except:
Atrial fibrillation
Length of diastolic murmur
A2-0S interval
Pulmonary hypertension
49. Cardiac catheterization in rhem1atic mitral regurgitation:
Routine cardiac catheterizi1hon is mandatory before mitral valve replacement in all patients
Pre-operative coronary angiogram is mandatory before valve replacement in those with risk factors
LV angiogram helps to assess LV function and regional wall motion abnormalities
Quantification of mitral regurgitation by catheterization is the gold standard which of the above is correct
50. For assessing severity of aortic stenosis clinically, which of the following is less reliable?
Length of systolic murmur
Intensity of systolic murmur
Late peaking of murmur
S1-ejection click interval
51. The following echocardiographic features are suggestive of severe mitral regurgitation except:
Pulmonary vein systolic flow reversal
Effective regurgitant orifice area more than 0.3 sq. cms
Regurgitant faction more than 55%
Regurgitation jet reaches posterior wall of left atrium
52. Which of the following statements about infective endocarditis is incorrect?
More common in men
More common in older persons
Rheumatic valvular disease is a common predisposing lesion
Among congenital heart disease, it is more common in ASD
53. vVhich of the following regarding subcutaneous nodules in rheumatic fever is correct
Painful and tender
Freely movable
Occur on extensor surface of elbows, knees and spine
Occur in 10 of case Which of the above is correct
54. Pathogenesis of Acute Rheumatic Fever -which of the following is wrong?
Abnormal immune response of heart
Toxic effect of extracellular toxin of Group A Streptococci
Streptococcal m Protein cross reacts with human cardiac myosin
Streptococcal antibodies cross react with caudate nucleus
55. In Rheumatic Fever, which of the following statements is not correct?
Severity of carditis determines prognosis
Recurrence of rheumatic fever is common in children
If Carditis occurs in first attack chance of carditis recurrence is high
Children with no carditis in first attack will never have cardiac murmur in long term follow up
56. Prevention of Rheumatic Fever:
Prompt treatment of pharyngitis with penicillin
Injectable penicillin is inferior to oral penicillin
Those with carditis should have prophylaxis up to 40 years of age
Vaccines are routinely recommended for prophylaxis Which of the above is correct
57. Which of the following statements regarding clinical features of acute rheumatic fever is wrong?
Subcutaneous nodules are always associated with carditis
Diagnosis requires two major or one major and two minor criteria
Supportive evidence of streptococcal infection is always required in all types of presentation
Valvulitis produces carey coombs murmur
58. Which of the following regarding ASO titer is not correct?
Two-fold rise in sample taken 2-4 weeks interval is significant
Not useful for diagnosis for chorea
Return to normal levels before antideoxyribonuclease B Levels
More than 250 Todd units significant in children
59. Which of the following regarding clinical features of Mitral stenosis is incorrect?
Chest pain is due to low stroke volume
Pulmonary infarct can cause pleuritic pain
Onset of atrial fibrillation may precipitate pulmonary edema
Syncope is unusual
60. In Echo Doppler assessment of Mitral Stenosis, which of the following statements is wrong?
In atrial fibrillation, average of valve gradient in 5 cycles to be taken
Valve area calculated by pressure half time is fallacious in coexistant atrial septal defect
Associated mitral regurgitation does not affect continuity equation
Transvalvular gradient will be falsely low in bradycardia
61. Renal dysfunction in infective endocarditis is caused by the following:
Immune complex glomerulonephritis
Aminoglycoside induced injury
LV dysfunction
All of the above
62. Which of the folloWing regarding neonatal infective endocarditis is incorrect?
Involves tricuspid valve
There is often structural abnormality of heart
Carries high mortality
Consequence of infected vascular access catheters
63. Chemoprophylaxis against infective endocarditis is indicated in the following conditions except:
Dental scaling
Tonsillectomy
Vaginal hysterectomy
Cystoscopy
64. As per Duke's criteria, infective endocarditis is said to be possible when:
Two major criteria
One major one minor criteria
Five minor criteria
None of the above
65. Which of the following is incorrect regarding Mitral Valve?
Mitral annulus posteriorly merges with aortic annulus
Posterior leaflet occupies 2/3rd of annulus
Posterior leaflets has three scallops
Primary chordae are twelve in number
66. Echo in infective endocarditis:
TEE has higher sensitivity and specificity for detecting vegetation
TEE has better in PVE
Vegetations show independent mobility
TEE is more useful to diagnose myocardial abscess Which of the above is correct?
67. Following regimens can be tried in culture negative endocarditis except:
Ampicillin Gentamycin
Ceftrioxone Gentamycin
Vancomycin to be added if prosthetic valve is present
Rifampicin Gentamycin
68. Regarding mitral stenosis, which of the following statements, is wrong?
QRS axis of less than 60 suggest severe mitral stenosis
Right axis deviation indicates Pulmonary hypertension
R/S ratio of more than 1 and V1 indicates pulmonary hypertension
P Mitrale is the most common ECG finding
69. The following are immunological phenomenon of infective endocarditis except:
Janeway lesion
Osler's nodes
Roth's spots
Rheumatoid factor
70. Which of the following statements about clinical features of infective endocarditis is incorrect
Fever and new murmur or changes in pre-existing murmur is common
Worsening cardiac failure due to valve destruction
Roth Spots are macular non tender lesions in hand
Worsening of renal function is due to the disease as well as drugs
71. Treatment of Rheumatic fever is:
Penicillin need not be given if throat culture does not grow streptococci
Carditis with cardiac enlargement does not require bed rest
Recommended dose of Aspirin is 100 mg/kg/day
While tapering steroids salicylate is to be added Which of the above are correct
72. A 35 years old female presents with repeated episodes of ventricular tachycardia. Gives history of flu like illness one week ago. ECG shows left burtdle branch block with diffuse. ST-T changes. Echocardiogram shows mild LV dilatation with severe LV dysfunction. The likely diagnosis is:
Restrictive cardiomyopathy
Myocarditis
Dilated cardiomyopathy
All of the above
73. Which of the following regarding clinical aspect of rheumatic fever is correct?
Rheumatic fever produces only pericarditis
Mitral stenosis can occur in acute stage
Aschoff bodies are characteristic of acute carditis
Mac Callum's patch occurs in left atrium
74. A 40 years male presented with slowly progressive exertional breathlessness and ankle edema of 2 months duration. Neck veins are distended. Echocardiogram showed normal sized LV with EF of 60% with dilated of both atria. Mild mitral and tricuspid regurgitation. The likely diagnosis is
Dilated cardiomyopathy
Restrictive cardiomyopathy
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Mycarditis
75. Which of the following is incorrect regarding systolic murmur of HOCM
Increase by valsalva manoeuver
Increase by amyl nitrate inhalation
Decrease on standing
Decrease on elevation of legs
76. A 50 years old female has easy fatiguability, significant weight loss and exertional dyspnoea of 4 months. On examination, she has small lump in her left breast, jugular venous pressure of 10 cm above sterna angle and no cardiac murmurs. Chest X-ray shows cardiomegaly with normal pulmonary parenchyma. Echocardiogram showed moderate pericardial effusion. The likely diagnosis is
Mesothelioma
Carcinoma of breast with metastasis
Carcinoma uterus with metastasis
Viral pericarditis
77. Which of the following regarding treatment of I10CM is wrong?
DDD pacing is indicated when there is severe bradycardia due to beta-blockers
In septal ablation, alcohol is percutaneously injected into first septal branch of LAD
Pacemaker implantation is routinely done after septal ablation
Septal myectomy is done by trans aortic approach
78. Which of the following is incorrect regarding rheumatic valvular heart disease?
Involvement of pulmonary valve is unusual
Commissural fusion and subvalvular apparatus involvement is common
Valvular regurgitation is uncommon in acute phase
Stenotic complications occur in 10 years in Indians
79. Which of the following statements about inves.tigations in acute rheumatic fever is incorrect?
Both ESR and CRP are elevated
ESR is more useful in follow up
ASO is elevated in chorea
PR prolongation is a feature of carditis
80. The following are poor prognostic indications of HOCM except:
Family history of sudden death
LV outflow gradient of 30 mm at rest
BP fall with exercise
Supraventricular tachycardia on Holter
81. Rheumatic arthritis:
Is typically fleeting in character
Dose not involve cervical spine
Usually does not extend beyond 6 weeks
Affects small joints of hands vVhich of the above statements are correct?
82. Which of the following regarding pathophysiology of infective endocarditis is incorrect?
Vegetations occurs at the site of jet impact on the endometrium
Embolic complications are unusual
Immunological complications are common
Treatment with antibiotics reduces the incidences of embolism
83. Which of the following is incorrect regarding Sydenham/s chorea?
Occurs many weeks after streptococcal sorethroat
Manifest as quasipurposive involuntary movements
Involves face and extremities
Elevated serum ASO titer is diagnostic
84. Which of the following regarding Rheumatic Carditis is incorrect?
Is always pancarditis
Established valvular heart disease develop in 2/3 of case
Aortic regurgitation is more common than mitral reb'11rgitation
Apical mid diastolic murmur can occur in acute phase MCC-004 15 P.T.O.
85. Which of the following about Pericardial rub is not correct?
Is a phasic scratching sound
Increase on inspiration
Always has three components
Best audible in lower left parasternal region
86. The following indicate functional MR except:
Mitral regurgitation jet is eccentric
Global or regional LV dysfunction is present
Apical displacement of AML with tenting
Mitral leaflets are not thickened
87. Which of the following about cardiac temponade is incorrect?
Will result if 200 ml of pericardial fluid accumulates rapidly
Increased JVP with prominent "Y" descent
Pulses paradoxsus is characteristic
Echocardiography shows early diastolic RV collapse
88. Which of the following statements regarding Echo features of cardiac temponade is incorrect?
Less than 50% inspiratory collapse of dilated inferior vena cava
Increase by more than 25% of mitral E velocity during inspiration
Increase by more than 25% of tricuspid E velocity during inspiration
Right ventricular diastolic collapse
89. Nhich of the following facts about pericardium is wrong?
Receives arterial supply from internal mammary artery
Phrenic nerve supplies visceral pericardium
Visceral pericardium drains to trachea bronchial
Prevents acute cavitary dilatation
90. Which of the following is not true regarding Rheumatic Fever?
Immunological mediated connective tissue disorder following infection of throat by Group A Streptococci
It licks the heart and bites the joint in younger individuals
Maximum incidences is in the age group of 5-15 years
There is resurgence of rheumatic fever due to increased virulence of streptococci.
5 years
5 -15 years
15 -25 years
25 -35 years
2. Child is said to be suffering from 'Juvenile' mitral stenosis if the age of child is:
5 years
5 -15 years
15 -25 years
25 -35 years
3. Following statements are true except:
Organism implicated for initiation in Rheumatic Fever is Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus
The long held opinion that only streptococcal pharyngitis and not streptococcal skin infections may be followed by Acute Rheumatic Fever has been challenged
0.3 percent of patients suffering from Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus throat infections develop Acute Rheumatic Fever
In Indian patients with acute rheumatic fever, genetic linkage to Human Leucocyte Antigen -DL7 has been demonstrated
4. Following statements are true except:
Group A streptococcus produces somatic and extracellular antigens
Group specific polysaccharide of GAS wall is antigenically akin to glycoprotein found in human and bovine cardiac valves
M protein of GAS cross reacts with human heart tissues particularly sacrolemmal membrane proteins and cardiac myosin
In chorea, antibodies directed against GAS cell membrane cross react with tissues in the frontal lobe of the brain
5. Following statements are true except:
Acute Rheumatic Fever is considered a multisystem autoimmune disease
Exact role of hot cross reacting antibodies in the pathogenesis of ARF is not clear
C3 C4 complements are reduced in ARF
CD4 CDs cell ratio is raised in ARF
6. A 23 years old lady has presented for the first time in your OPD. She has been diagnosed as stable severe mitral stenosis and mild mitral regurgitation. As per 2002 -2003, WHO criteria for diagnosis of Rheumatic Heart Disease, she should fulfil following manifestations of Revised Jones Criteria
One major manifestation and two minor manifestations
Two minor manifestations
One minor manifestation with supporting evidence of antecedent group A streptococcal infection
Does not require any other criteria
7. Following statements about carditis in Acute Rheumatic Fever are true except:
Around 40 percent cases of ARF develop carditis
About 66 percent of ARF patients with carditis develop Rheumatic Heart Disease on follow up
Tricuspid Regurgitation is the commonest valvular lesion during ARF
Pericarditis, Pericardial effusion and arrhythmias may also occur in rheumatic carditis
8. Following statements about Pathogenesis of Acute Rheumatic Fever are true except:
Pathologic hall mark of rheumatic carditis is Aschoff body
Aschoff body comprises of perivascular infiltrates of large cells arranged in a rosette form around a vascular area of fibrinoid necrosis
Aschoff bodies are usually seen in Acute Stage of Rheumatic carditis
On gross examination, on opening of left atrium, one sees a thickened patch of tissue just above the base of posterior mitral leaflet termed as 'Mac Callum's patch'
9. Following statements in the setting of Acute Rheumatic Fever are true except:
Polyarthritis is the most common manifestation
Subcutaneous nodules are present in 3-6 percent of cases
Erythema marginatum is a macular, evanescent and pruritic rash mostly on trunk and arms but never on face
Chorea may be the only manifestation of ARF
10. Following statements about diagnosis of Acute Rheumatic Fever are true except:
One must look for supportive evidence for antecedent Group A streptococci infection
In about 80 percent of ARF patients, Anti-streptolysin 0 titres are raised
AS 0 titres are at peak usually 3 months after streptococcal infection
Anti-deoxyribonuclease 13 titre remains elevated longer than Anti-streptolysin 0 titres
11. Following statements about course and prognosis of Acute Rheumatic Fever are true except:
The course and ultimate prognosis of Acute Rheumatic Fever is usually directly related to the severity of polyarthritis
The course and prognosis also depends upon recurrence of rheumatic fever
There is always a tendency to develop rheumatic fever with repeated group A streptococci infection
There is a greater chance for recurrence in young children and in the first 3 years after the first attack
12. One of the following drug in following dosage is recommended for secondary prophylaxis for Acute Rheumatic Fever except:
Benzathine Penicillin 1.2 million units every 3 weeks (weight 30 mg)
Penicillin V 500 mgm b.l.d daily
Erythromycin stearate 250 mgm b.l.d. daily
Sulfadiazine 1 gmjkg (0.5 grnjkg in children)
13. Following statements about Infective Endocarditis are true except
IE is a microbial infection of the endothelial surface of the heart
Infection may occur at the site of septal defect chordae tendinae, mural endocardium, heart valve leaflets
Mural Endocardium is more commonly involved
Prosthetic valve may prOVide a nidus for infection, as well as barrier to eradication
14. Following statements about Infective Endocarditis are true except:
Infective endocarditis usually occurs more frequently in men
The age specific incidence of endocarditis increases progressively after 30 years of age
Predisposing conditions cannot be identified in 25 to 45 percent of patients
Among neonates, infective endocarditis typically involves the mitral valve of structurally normal hearts.
15. Commonest organism incriminated in native valve endocarditis in the age group of 2 months to 15 years is
Streptococci
S. Aureus
Enterococci
Gram negative bacteria
16. Following statements about Prosthetic Valve Endocarditis are true except:
The risk of PVE is greatest during the initial 6 months after valve surgery
During the initial months after valve implantation, bio prosthetic valves are at greater risk of infection than mechanical valve
PVE represents 7 to 25 percent of all infective endocarditis cases
PVE can be broadly divided into two groups based on the time of onset of infection after valve surgery -early and late
17. In the setting of Prosthetic valve endocarditis, within two months of surgery, commonest organism incriminated is
Staphylococcus aureus
Coagulase -negative staphylococci
Gram negative baccilli -P. Aeruginosa
Fungi -candida species
18. Of the following, commonest clinicial sign of infective endocarditis is
Fever
Changing or new murmur
Embolic Event
Clubbing
19. Following clinical features in infective endocarditis are due to Immune mediated injury:
Glomerulonephritis
Osler's nodes
Janeway lesions
Roth's spots
20. Following statements about the cardiac manifestations of Infective Endocarditis are true except:
Murmur is present in about 80 -85 percent of cases
Congestive Heart failure develops in 30 -40 percent of patients
Heart failure due to mitral valve dysfunction progresses more rapidly than does that due to aortic valve dysfunction
Embolic to a coronary artery occur in of patients and may result in myocardial infarction
21. As per modified Duke Criteria of Infective Endocarditis, patient is said to suffering from 'Definite' Infective Endocarditis if he/she meets the following combinations of clinical criteria except:
Two major criteria
One major and two minor criteria
One major and three minor criteria
Five minor criteria
22. Following statements about Infective Endocarditis are true except:
Systemic Emboli are among the most common clinical sequelae of IE
Embolic often antedate diagnosis of IE
Incidence of embolic events decreases promptly during administration of effective antibiotic therapy
Embolic stroke syndromes, predominantly involving the anterior cerebral artery territory, occurs in 15 to 20 percent of patients with IE
23. Following statements about Fungal Infective Endocarditis are true except:
Is associated with high mortality (Survival Rate
Is associated with large bulky vegetations
Candida and Aspergillus species are the most common causes
Blood cultures are usually positive incase of Aspergillus whereas they are rarely positive with Candida.
24. In the setting of IE, following features suggest need of emergent (same day) surgery
Acute aortic regurgitation plus preclosure of mitral valve
Sinus of Valsalva abscess ruptured into right heart
Rupture into pericardial sac
Fungal Endocarditis
25. As per modified Duke criteria of Infective Endocarditis, following clinical criteria are considered as minor criteria except:
Predisposing heart condition or intravenous drug use
Fever 38°C
Major Arterial Emboli
Typical micro-organism for infective endocarditis grown from two separate blood cultures
26. Following statements are true except:
Minimum Inhibitory Concentration of the antibiotic is the lowest concentration that inhibits growth of the causative organism
Minimum Bactericidal Concentration of the antibiotic is the lowest concentration that decreases a standard inoculum of organisms 99.9 percent during 48 hours
For the vast majority of streptococci and staphylococci, the MIC and MBC of penicillins, cephalosporins or vancomycin are the same or differ only by a factor of two to four
organisms for which MBC of these antibiotics is 10 fold or greater than MIC are occasionally encountered
27. In the setting of Infective Endocarditis, following statements about mycotic aneurysms are true except
They result from septic embolization of vegetations to the arterial vasa vasorum or to the 'intraluminal space.
Arterial branching points favour the impaction of emboli
They occur more frequently in visceral arteries followed by intracranial arteries
Intra-abdominal mycotic aneurysms are often asymptomatic until leakage or rupture occurs.
28. Following statements about mitral valve Annulus are true except:
Annulus is a saddle shaped structure
Posteriorly it merges with aortic annulus while anteriorly there is a C shaped discrete fibrous annulus
Normal diameter is about 2.5 -3.5 cms
Normal motion and contraction contribute to the normal mitral valve function
29. Following statements about Mitral Stenosis are true except:
The predominant cause of MS is rheumatic fever
25% of all patients with Rheumatic Heart Disease have isolated MS
40% of all patients with RHD have combined MS and MR
Multivalve involvement is seen in 38% of MS patients with the aortic valve affected in about 35% and the tricuspid valve in about 30%.
30. Following statements about the Pathophysiology of Mitral valve obstruction are true except:
The transvalvular pressure gradient for any given valve area is a function of the square of the transvalvular flow rate
Doubling of flow rate doubles the pressures gradient
Increase in left atrial pressure would cause increase in the pulmonary artery wedge pressure
Increases in pulmonary artery wedge pressure would cause interstitial congestion and this presents as symptoms of dyspnea
31. Following statements about physical signs of mitral stenosis are true except:
Pulse is normal or low volume
With severe pulmonary artery hypertension, right ventricle may form the apex
First heart sound is loud except in calcific and nonpliable valve
Severity of mitral stenosis is directly proportional to A2 -OS distance
32. Following statements about echocardiographic score in mitral stenosis, used to predict outcome of Mitral Balloon Valvuloplasty are true except:
Echocardiographic score is based on valve thickness, calcification, mobility and subvalvular :thickening
Patients witlt an echocardiographic score of 8 or less have more favourable result from BMV than those with score higher than 8
Patient is said to have Grade 3 Subvalvular Thickening, if thickening of the chordal structures extends upto one third of the chordal length.
Patient is said to have grade 3 mobility, if the valve continues to move forward in diastole mainly from the base.
33. Following statements about Atrial Fibrillation in the setting of Mitral Stenosis are true except:
With increase in left atrial size, there are more chances of patient developing AF
Initially, AF may be paroxysmal, but later it becomes persistent and then chronic
Loss of Atrial contraction also contributes to decrease in mean left atrial pressure
Incidence of thromboembolic complications in AF due to rheumatic mitral stenosis is 17 times more than that seen in lone AF
34. Following statements are true except:
Congenital Mitral Regurgitation may be due to cleft mitral leaflet
Rheumatic involvement is the most important cause of mitral regurgitation in our country
Myxomatous mitral valve is characterized by deposition of mucopolysaccharides in the spongiosa layer
In idiopathic degeneration of chordae, usually anterior leaflets are involved and their rupture leads to mitral regurgitation
35. In compensated chronic mitral regurgitation, following statements are true except:
Left atrium is enlarged
Left ventricle is enlarged
Increased preload of left ventricle
Increased after load of left ventricle
36. In compensated chronic severe mitral regurgitation, 2nd heart sound is
Widely split
Normal split
Narrow split
Reverse split
37. Following statements about Aortic Stenosis are true except:
Congenital bicuspid aortic valve is one of the common congenital abnormality -about 8 percent
Congenital abnormalities of aortic valve may lead to unicuspid Aortic valve
Degenerative aortic valve disease that is seen increasingly in elderly shares common pathogenesis with atherosclerosis
Patient is often, the orifice size decreases from normal 3-4 cm^2 to 1.5cm^2
38. Following statements about physicaJ signs in aortic stenosis are true except:
A grade I murmur in the abscence of decompensation suggests mild lesion
A grade IV murmur almost always suggests severe aortic stenosis
In children and elderly, seleCtive conduction of high frequency sounds to apical area may give to murmw at apex
An early peaking loud grade ry murmur is specific to severe aortic stenosis
39. Patient is said to be suffering from severe mitral regurgitation if he/she meets the following criteria except
Regurgitant volume more tpan 60 ml per beat
Regurgitant fraction more than 40 percent
Effective orifice IIlore than 0.4 cm^2
Pulmonary vein systolic flow reversal
40. As per ACCjAHA guidelines for management of patients with severe aortic regurgitation, following are class I indications for Aortic Regurgitation except:
Symptomatic patients
Asymptomatic patients with EF 0.50 at rest
Asymptomatic patients undergoing CABG or surgery on Aorta or heart valves
Asymptomatic patients, Normal LV functions, EDD 75 mm, ESD 55 mm
41. Following statements about Pericardium are true except:
Pericardium consists of two layers
Parietal pericardium thickness may be upto 2.5 to 3.0 mm
The phrenic nerves lie over the parietal pericardium and supply most of it
The normal intrapericardial pressure can vary from 5 to 10 mm of Hg
42. Following statements about electrocardiogram in acute pericarditis are true except:
Four stages of evolution of ECG changes may occur
In stage there is ST segment elevation with concavity upwards
In stage II, there is T wave invertion
In stage IV, T wave normalizes
43. Following statements about size of the Pericardia:l Effusion(PE) are true except:
Small PE Mostly seen in anterior part of the heart
Moderate PE (100-500 ml) Seen all around the heart, width 1.0 cm
Large PE 500 ml) More than 1 cm in width all around
Tamponade -swinging motion of the heart, diastolic collapse of right ventricle and respiratory flow variation across the atrioventricular valves
44. Following statements about Pathophysiology of constrictive pericarditis are true except:
There is restriction of ventricular dilatation and diastolic filling of the ventricles
There is dissociation of intracardiac and intrathoracic pressures
Difference in diastolic pressure between the ventricles is more than 5 mm of Hg
There is systemic and pulmonary venous congestion
45. Following are the features of Arrhythmogenic Right Ventricular Cardiomyopathy (ARVC) except:
It is marked by myocardial cell loss with partial or total replacement of RV muscle by adipose and fibrous tissue
Clinical manifestations are seen in adolescence or early adulthood predominantly in males
ECG shows inverted T waves in right precordial leads
They develop reentrant ventricular tachyarrhythmias of RBBB configuration usually precipitated by exercise.
46. In constrictive pericarditis, following hemodynamic changes occur except:
Left ventricular pressure tracing shows square root sign
Equalization of diastolic pressure in all 4 chambers
Ventricular filling occurs only in early diastole
Jugular venous pressure is decreased
47. Which of the following hemodynamic aspects of constrictive pericarditis is incorrect?
There is dissociation of intracardiac and intrathoracic pressures
There is elevation of intracardiac diastolic pressures
Affects early filling phase of ventricles
Causes equalization of diastolic pressures in all 4 chambers
48. The following are related to severity of mitral stenosis except:
Atrial fibrillation
Length of diastolic murmur
A2-0S interval
Pulmonary hypertension
49. Cardiac catheterization in rhem1atic mitral regurgitation:
Routine cardiac catheterizi1hon is mandatory before mitral valve replacement in all patients
Pre-operative coronary angiogram is mandatory before valve replacement in those with risk factors
LV angiogram helps to assess LV function and regional wall motion abnormalities
Quantification of mitral regurgitation by catheterization is the gold standard which of the above is correct
50. For assessing severity of aortic stenosis clinically, which of the following is less reliable?
Length of systolic murmur
Intensity of systolic murmur
Late peaking of murmur
S1-ejection click interval
51. The following echocardiographic features are suggestive of severe mitral regurgitation except:
Pulmonary vein systolic flow reversal
Effective regurgitant orifice area more than 0.3 sq. cms
Regurgitant faction more than 55%
Regurgitation jet reaches posterior wall of left atrium
52. Which of the following statements about infective endocarditis is incorrect?
More common in men
More common in older persons
Rheumatic valvular disease is a common predisposing lesion
Among congenital heart disease, it is more common in ASD
53. vVhich of the following regarding subcutaneous nodules in rheumatic fever is correct
Painful and tender
Freely movable
Occur on extensor surface of elbows, knees and spine
Occur in 10 of case Which of the above is correct
54. Pathogenesis of Acute Rheumatic Fever -which of the following is wrong?
Abnormal immune response of heart
Toxic effect of extracellular toxin of Group A Streptococci
Streptococcal m Protein cross reacts with human cardiac myosin
Streptococcal antibodies cross react with caudate nucleus
55. In Rheumatic Fever, which of the following statements is not correct?
Severity of carditis determines prognosis
Recurrence of rheumatic fever is common in children
If Carditis occurs in first attack chance of carditis recurrence is high
Children with no carditis in first attack will never have cardiac murmur in long term follow up
56. Prevention of Rheumatic Fever:
Prompt treatment of pharyngitis with penicillin
Injectable penicillin is inferior to oral penicillin
Those with carditis should have prophylaxis up to 40 years of age
Vaccines are routinely recommended for prophylaxis Which of the above is correct
57. Which of the following statements regarding clinical features of acute rheumatic fever is wrong?
Subcutaneous nodules are always associated with carditis
Diagnosis requires two major or one major and two minor criteria
Supportive evidence of streptococcal infection is always required in all types of presentation
Valvulitis produces carey coombs murmur
58. Which of the following regarding ASO titer is not correct?
Two-fold rise in sample taken 2-4 weeks interval is significant
Not useful for diagnosis for chorea
Return to normal levels before antideoxyribonuclease B Levels
More than 250 Todd units significant in children
59. Which of the following regarding clinical features of Mitral stenosis is incorrect?
Chest pain is due to low stroke volume
Pulmonary infarct can cause pleuritic pain
Onset of atrial fibrillation may precipitate pulmonary edema
Syncope is unusual
60. In Echo Doppler assessment of Mitral Stenosis, which of the following statements is wrong?
In atrial fibrillation, average of valve gradient in 5 cycles to be taken
Valve area calculated by pressure half time is fallacious in coexistant atrial septal defect
Associated mitral regurgitation does not affect continuity equation
Transvalvular gradient will be falsely low in bradycardia
61. Renal dysfunction in infective endocarditis is caused by the following:
Immune complex glomerulonephritis
Aminoglycoside induced injury
LV dysfunction
All of the above
62. Which of the folloWing regarding neonatal infective endocarditis is incorrect?
Involves tricuspid valve
There is often structural abnormality of heart
Carries high mortality
Consequence of infected vascular access catheters
63. Chemoprophylaxis against infective endocarditis is indicated in the following conditions except:
Dental scaling
Tonsillectomy
Vaginal hysterectomy
Cystoscopy
64. As per Duke's criteria, infective endocarditis is said to be possible when:
Two major criteria
One major one minor criteria
Five minor criteria
None of the above
65. Which of the following is incorrect regarding Mitral Valve?
Mitral annulus posteriorly merges with aortic annulus
Posterior leaflet occupies 2/3rd of annulus
Posterior leaflets has three scallops
Primary chordae are twelve in number
66. Echo in infective endocarditis:
TEE has higher sensitivity and specificity for detecting vegetation
TEE has better in PVE
Vegetations show independent mobility
TEE is more useful to diagnose myocardial abscess Which of the above is correct?
67. Following regimens can be tried in culture negative endocarditis except:
Ampicillin Gentamycin
Ceftrioxone Gentamycin
Vancomycin to be added if prosthetic valve is present
Rifampicin Gentamycin
68. Regarding mitral stenosis, which of the following statements, is wrong?
QRS axis of less than 60 suggest severe mitral stenosis
Right axis deviation indicates Pulmonary hypertension
R/S ratio of more than 1 and V1 indicates pulmonary hypertension
P Mitrale is the most common ECG finding
69. The following are immunological phenomenon of infective endocarditis except:
Janeway lesion
Osler's nodes
Roth's spots
Rheumatoid factor
70. Which of the following statements about clinical features of infective endocarditis is incorrect
Fever and new murmur or changes in pre-existing murmur is common
Worsening cardiac failure due to valve destruction
Roth Spots are macular non tender lesions in hand
Worsening of renal function is due to the disease as well as drugs
71. Treatment of Rheumatic fever is:
Penicillin need not be given if throat culture does not grow streptococci
Carditis with cardiac enlargement does not require bed rest
Recommended dose of Aspirin is 100 mg/kg/day
While tapering steroids salicylate is to be added Which of the above are correct
72. A 35 years old female presents with repeated episodes of ventricular tachycardia. Gives history of flu like illness one week ago. ECG shows left burtdle branch block with diffuse. ST-T changes. Echocardiogram shows mild LV dilatation with severe LV dysfunction. The likely diagnosis is:
Restrictive cardiomyopathy
Myocarditis
Dilated cardiomyopathy
All of the above
73. Which of the following regarding clinical aspect of rheumatic fever is correct?
Rheumatic fever produces only pericarditis
Mitral stenosis can occur in acute stage
Aschoff bodies are characteristic of acute carditis
Mac Callum's patch occurs in left atrium
74. A 40 years male presented with slowly progressive exertional breathlessness and ankle edema of 2 months duration. Neck veins are distended. Echocardiogram showed normal sized LV with EF of 60% with dilated of both atria. Mild mitral and tricuspid regurgitation. The likely diagnosis is
Dilated cardiomyopathy
Restrictive cardiomyopathy
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Mycarditis
75. Which of the following is incorrect regarding systolic murmur of HOCM
Increase by valsalva manoeuver
Increase by amyl nitrate inhalation
Decrease on standing
Decrease on elevation of legs
76. A 50 years old female has easy fatiguability, significant weight loss and exertional dyspnoea of 4 months. On examination, she has small lump in her left breast, jugular venous pressure of 10 cm above sterna angle and no cardiac murmurs. Chest X-ray shows cardiomegaly with normal pulmonary parenchyma. Echocardiogram showed moderate pericardial effusion. The likely diagnosis is
Mesothelioma
Carcinoma of breast with metastasis
Carcinoma uterus with metastasis
Viral pericarditis
77. Which of the following regarding treatment of I10CM is wrong?
DDD pacing is indicated when there is severe bradycardia due to beta-blockers
In septal ablation, alcohol is percutaneously injected into first septal branch of LAD
Pacemaker implantation is routinely done after septal ablation
Septal myectomy is done by trans aortic approach
78. Which of the following is incorrect regarding rheumatic valvular heart disease?
Involvement of pulmonary valve is unusual
Commissural fusion and subvalvular apparatus involvement is common
Valvular regurgitation is uncommon in acute phase
Stenotic complications occur in 10 years in Indians
79. Which of the following statements about inves.tigations in acute rheumatic fever is incorrect?
Both ESR and CRP are elevated
ESR is more useful in follow up
ASO is elevated in chorea
PR prolongation is a feature of carditis
80. The following are poor prognostic indications of HOCM except:
Family history of sudden death
LV outflow gradient of 30 mm at rest
BP fall with exercise
Supraventricular tachycardia on Holter
81. Rheumatic arthritis:
Is typically fleeting in character
Dose not involve cervical spine
Usually does not extend beyond 6 weeks
Affects small joints of hands vVhich of the above statements are correct?
82. Which of the following regarding pathophysiology of infective endocarditis is incorrect?
Vegetations occurs at the site of jet impact on the endometrium
Embolic complications are unusual
Immunological complications are common
Treatment with antibiotics reduces the incidences of embolism
83. Which of the following is incorrect regarding Sydenham/s chorea?
Occurs many weeks after streptococcal sorethroat
Manifest as quasipurposive involuntary movements
Involves face and extremities
Elevated serum ASO titer is diagnostic
84. Which of the following regarding Rheumatic Carditis is incorrect?
Is always pancarditis
Established valvular heart disease develop in 2/3 of case
Aortic regurgitation is more common than mitral reb'11rgitation
Apical mid diastolic murmur can occur in acute phase MCC-004 15 P.T.O.
85. Which of the following about Pericardial rub is not correct?
Is a phasic scratching sound
Increase on inspiration
Always has three components
Best audible in lower left parasternal region
86. The following indicate functional MR except:
Mitral regurgitation jet is eccentric
Global or regional LV dysfunction is present
Apical displacement of AML with tenting
Mitral leaflets are not thickened
87. Which of the following about cardiac temponade is incorrect?
Will result if 200 ml of pericardial fluid accumulates rapidly
Increased JVP with prominent "Y" descent
Pulses paradoxsus is characteristic
Echocardiography shows early diastolic RV collapse
88. Which of the following statements regarding Echo features of cardiac temponade is incorrect?
Less than 50% inspiratory collapse of dilated inferior vena cava
Increase by more than 25% of mitral E velocity during inspiration
Increase by more than 25% of tricuspid E velocity during inspiration
Right ventricular diastolic collapse
89. Nhich of the following facts about pericardium is wrong?
Receives arterial supply from internal mammary artery
Phrenic nerve supplies visceral pericardium
Visceral pericardium drains to trachea bronchial
Prevents acute cavitary dilatation
90. Which of the following is not true regarding Rheumatic Fever?
Immunological mediated connective tissue disorder following infection of throat by Group A Streptococci
It licks the heart and bites the joint in younger individuals
Maximum incidences is in the age group of 5-15 years
There is resurgence of rheumatic fever due to increased virulence of streptococci.
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